GENERAL STUDIES - MCQs 4

51.    Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s)-
1.    In bacteria respiration takes place in mesosomes.
2.    In mitochondria the site of aerobic respiration is cristae.
3.    No ATP is formed during the process of glycolysis.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All        (d)    1 and 3

52.    Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s)-
1.    Auxins are used to initiate rooting in the stem cuttings.
2.    In plants Auxins are responsible for the Apical Dominance.
3.    The spraying of gibberlins is done to increase the length of sugarcane stems.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All        (d)    1 and 3

53.    The compound used as the artificial fruit ripenor is-
    (a)    Ethephon    (b)    Oxytocin
    (c)    ABA    (d)    None

54.    Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s)-
1.    The respiration process in human beings is controlled by the medulla.
2.    Around 70% of the CO2 is transported by the RBC.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1  and 2     (d)    None

55    Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s)-
1.    The mature RBC is enucleated in mammals except camel and lama.
2.    The biconcave shape of RBC helps in higher transportation of oxygen.
3.    Among WBC ,neutrophils are the most abundant in number.
    Codes-
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All        (d)    1 and 3

56.    Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s)-
1.    In diabetes mellitus glucose and ketone both are present in the urine.

2.    Glucagon is a hyperglycemic hormone.
3.    Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of Na ions.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All    (d)    1 and 3

57.    The gland(s) associated with cellular and humoral immunity is/are:
    1.    Pituitary    2.    Thyroid
    3.    Thymus
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All    (d)    3 Only

58.    The function of thyroid in human body is/are-
1.    Control of the basic metabolic rate.
2.    Increasing the calcium level in the blood.
3.    Maintenance of electrolyte and water balance in the body.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All    (d)    1 and 3

59.    In the human brain the-
1.    Hypothalamus regulates the body temperature.
2.    The cerebral cortex is known as white matter.
3.    Pons controls the gastric secretions.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All        (d)    1 and 3

60.    The cells of the nervous system are:
1.    Unipolar during the embryonic stage only.
2.    Multipolar in the cerebral cortex region of the brain.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2     (d)    None

61.    Choose the incorrect statement(s)-
1.    Stem cells can be obtained from embryos only.
2.    stem cells are the unspecialized cells of the body.
3.    stem cells are totipotent and pluripotent in nature.
4.    stem cells are procured from the blastocyst.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    3 and 4         (d)    None


62.    While performing cloning of any animal:
1.    The Ovum is enucleated .
2.    Half of the genome of the cell of the animal to be cloned is transferred in the enucleated ovum.
3.    The reconstructed ovum is made to undergo divisions in the womb of the female only.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All          (d)    1 and 3

63.    Identify the correct statement(s)-
1.    The calorific value of a substrate is more than its physiological value.
2.    The  physiological value of carbohydrates is maximum.
3.    The respiratory quotient is the ratio of CO2 released and O2 used.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All        (d)    1 and 3

64.    In the context of hydrogen as a fuel the correct statement(s) is/are-
1.    The calorific value of Hydrogen is more than CNG.
2.    It produces water and electricity in a fuel cell.
    Codes-
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

65.    In the context of semiconductors the correct statement(s) is/are-
1.    The conductivity of doped semiconductors is more than the pure semi conductors.
2.    for the doping of the semiconductors trivalent and pentavalent elements are added.
3.    They are used in LEDs.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All        (d)    1 and 3

66.    Hydroponics is a medium having different nutrients,it is used for-
(a)    Cloning of the animal cells.
(b)    Carrying out plant tissue culture
(c)    Preserving the specimens in the laboratory.
(d)    Providing medium for the bacterial culture

67.    In Photosynthesis the splitting of water takes place during the-
(a)    Light phase
(b)    dark phase
(c)     Electron transport system
(d)     In all the above mentioned stages.

68.    The plasmids are found in the bacterial cell for the purpose of-
1.    Causing infections
2.    Providing resistance capacity against the antibiotics to the bacteria.
    3.    Carrying out the respiration.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    2 Only
    (c)    All        (d)    1 and 3

69.    Identify the correct statements-
1.    In green houses the tomatoes are produced in European nations by increasing the levels of CO2.
2.    The rate of respiration increases continuously with temperature.
3.    The rate of photosynthesis increases continuously with light intensity.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    2 Only
    (c)    All        (d)    1 and 3

70.    Light Emitting Diodes (LED) is used in fancy electronic devices such as toys emit:
    (a)    X-rays
    (b)    Ultraviolet light
    (c)    Visible light
    (d)    Radio waves

71.    Identify the correct statement(s)-
1.    Carbon nano tubes are having more strength because they posses high aspect ratio.
2.    In graphene carbon atoms are  having the single layered arrangement.
    Codes-
    (a)    1 Only        (b)     2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None


72.    Radiocarbon is produced in the atmosphere as a result of:
    (a)    Collision between fast neutrons and nitrogen nuclei present in the atmosphere
    (b)    Action of ultraviolet light from the sun on atmospheric oxygen
    (c)    Action of solar radiations particularly cosmic rays on carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere
    (d)    Lightning discharge in atmosphere

73.    Diabetic patients are adviced a low glycaemic index diet. The reason for this is:
    1.    They require less carbohydrate than healthy individuals.
    2.    They cannot assimilate ordinary Carbohydrates.
    3.    They need to have slow but sustained release of glucose in their blood stream.
    Correct statement is/are:
    Code:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3    (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    3 Only    (d)    All above


74.    Graves disease is associated with:
    (a)    Insufficiency of thyroids hormones
    (b)    Excess of thyroid hormones.
    (c)    Insufficiency of Corticosteroids
    (d)    Excess of growth harmons

75.    In the process of the contraction of skeletal muscle-
    1.    The actin and myosin proteins are interconnected.
    2.    Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases the Calcium ions.
    3.    The length of Z-line changes .
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3           (d)    All

76.    Consider the following statements and choose the correct sentence:
    1.    The fibrous joints are immobile.
    2.    In gout uric acid is deposited in the joints.
    3.    In a shoulder joint the spherical end of humerus is fitted in the glenoid cavity .
    Code-
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
       (d)    All

77.    The real gas can behave like an ideal gas at-
    (a)    Low Temperature and high Pressure
    (b)    High Temperature and Low Pressure
    (c)    Below critical temperature
    (d)    Below critical pressure

78.    Consider the following statement(s) about the mechanism of action of antibiotics:
    1.    Interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis.
    2.    Inhibit bacterial transcription of DNA.
    3.    Inhibit translation of bacterial mRNA
    4.    Change the permeability of Plasma membrane
    Correct statement is/are:
    Code:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3    (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    1 Only    (d)    All above

79    Consider the following statements and choose the correct -
    1.    In the Human Genome Project 46 chromosomes were sequenced.
    2.    In Human Genome Project Bacterial Artificial Chromosome and Yeast Artificial Chromosomes were used for the cloning of human chromosomes.
    3.    Under Human Genome Project the location and functions of all the genes were determined.
    Codes-
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only        (d)    All

80.    In the adiabatic process the process does not observed is/are-
    1.    Fall in the temperature.
    2.    Decrease in the internal energy
    3.    Work done is zero
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    3 only
    (c)    1 only
    (d)    All
81.    The monoclonal antibodies are-
    1.    Produced by the Hybridoma technology.
    2.    Used to suppress the immune system in the patients of organ transplantation.
    3.    Highly specific in their action.
    4.    Approved for their use only by the FDA.
    Code:
    (a)    1, 2  and 4    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 3 and 4    (d)    1, 2  and 3


82.    During the digestion of food:
    1.    Salivary amylase converts starch into maltose.
    2.    Pepsin breaks down fat particles  into fatty acids.
    3.    Bile juice and Pancreatic juice are released separately in the duodenum. 
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    3 Only
    (c)    1 Only        (d)    All

83.    The drupe type of fruits are-
    1.    Mango and Coconut
    2.    One seeded
    3.    Parthenocarpically developed.
    Codes-
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    3 only
    (c)    1 only        (d)    All

84.    The regeneration of the grass grazed by cattles is due to-
    (a)    Apical meristem
    (b)    Lateral meristem
    (c)    Intercalary meristem
    (d)    Secondary meristem


85.    A single molecule of diborane is having-
    1.    Four terminal hydrogens
    2.    Two bridging hydrogens
    3.    Four 3c-2e bonds.
    4.    Two 2c-2e bonds.
    Codes-
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    3 and 4
    (c)    2 and 3        (d)    None

86.    Consider the following statement(s):
    1.    The recommendation to impose President's Rule in any state to the President of India is the discretionary power of the Governor.
    2.    This recommendation can be given in case of failure of Constitutional machinary in the state.
    3.    President's Rule is mentioned under Article 360 of the Indian Constitution.
    Code:
    (a)    Only 1 and 2 are correct
    (b)    Only 2 and 3 are correct
    (c)    Only 1 and 3 are correct
    (d)    All are correct
87.    Match the following:
    Article    Provisions
    A.    Art. 169    1.    Union Public Service Commission
    B.    Art. 275    2.    Creation or abolition of State Legislative Council
    C.    Art. 312    3.    Grants-in-Aid from Union to the States
    D.    Art. 315    4.    All India Services
    Code:
        A    B    C    D
    (a)    1    2    3    4
    (b)    2    3    1    4
    (c)    2    3    4    1
    (d)    3    2    1    4

88.    Consider the following statements:
    Assertion (A):    In case of any repugnancy in the recommendations of Finance Commission and Planning Commission, the recommendation of Finance Commission will be given acceptance.
    Reason (R):    Finance Commission is a Constututional Body mentioned under Art. 290 of the Indian Constitution
    Code:
    (a)    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (b)    Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (c)    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
    (d)    (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

89.    Consider the following statement(s):
    1.    National Human Rights Commission is a Constitutional Body mentioned under Art. 29 of the Indian Constitution.
    2.    Right to Information Act was enacted in 2007.
    3.    National Commission for Women was created in 2003.
    Code:
    (a)    Only 1 is incorrect
    (b)    Only 2 is incorrect
    (c)    Only 3 is incorrect
    (d)    All are incorrect


90.    Match the following:
    Article    Provisions
    A.    Sch.-VII    1.    Anti Defection Law.
    B.    Sch.-VIII    2.    Panchayati Raj Institutions
    C.    Sch.-X    3.    Division of Legislative Subjects into three lists.
    D.    Sch.-XI    4.    Recognised languages in India.
    Code:
        A    B    C    D
    (a)    1    2    3    4
    (b)    2    3    1    4
    (c)    2    3    4    1
    (d)    3    4    1    2

91.    Consider the following statement(s):
    1.    The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was created on the recommendation of Santhanam Committee in 1964.
    2.    The Institution of Lokpal is based on Scandanavian Institution which was created in Norway in 1809.
    3.    The Lokpal Bill has been referred to standing Parliamentary Committee for its recommendation in India.
    Code:
    (a)    Only 1 and 2 are correct
    (b)    Only 2 and 3 are correct
    (c)    Only 1 and 3 are correct
    (d)    All are correct

92.    Consider the following statement(s):
    1.    The All India States People Conference (AISPC) was started by Balwant Rai Mehta, Manik Lal Kothari and Jawahar Lal Nehru.
    2.    Jawahar Lal Nehru presided over annual session of AISPC at Chandigarh in 1939.
    3.    The Princely States were united into the Indian Union due to the efforts of V.P. Menon.
    4.    In the Princely State of Kashmir the ruler of Kashmir established the military force known as Razakars to defy its merger with Indian Union.
    Code :
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Only 3 is correct
    (d)    Only 4 is correct

93.    Consider the following statement(s):
    1.    The U.P. Kisan Sabha was established in 1918 by Gauri Shankar Mishra, Indira Narayan Dwivedi and Jawahar Lal Nehru.
    2.    The Oudh Kisan Sabha was established in 1921 by Gauri Shankar Mishra, Mata Badal Pandey and Jawahar Lal Nehru.
    3.    The All India Kisan Sabha was established in 1936 with N.G. Ranga as secretary and Swami Shraddhanand Saraswati as President in Lucknow.
    4.    The Congress Working Committee (    CWC) abolished landlordism in 1945.
    Code:
    (a)    Only 1 and 2 are correct
    (b)    Only 2 and 3 are correct
    (c)    Only 3 and 4 are correct
    (d)    Only 1 and 4 are correct

94.    Consider the following statements:
    Assertion (A):    The Wood's Despatch repudiated the 'down word filteration theory' for education in India.
    Reason (R):    The recommendation of Wood's Despatch led to the establishment of Universities at Calcutta, Bombay and Madra in 1857.
    Code:
    (a)    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (b)    Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (c)    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
    (d)    (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

95.    Match the following:
    Centres of Revolt    British officers
    of 1857    who suppressed
    A.    Delhi    1.    Sir Winslow Taylor
    B.    Kanpur    2.    Sir Hugh Rose
    C.    Jhansi    3.    John Nicholson
    D.    Arrah    4.    William Campbell
    Code:
        A    B    C    D
    (a)    1    2    3    4
    (b)    3    4    2    1
    (c)    2    3    4    1
    (d)    3    4    1    2
96.    Consider the following statement(s):
    1.    The Trade Monopoly of the British East India Company was abolished by the Charter Act of 1833.
    2.    The Trade activities of the British East India Company was abolished by the Charter Act of 1813.
    3.    The Right to nominate the members to the Indian Civil Services was abolished by the Charter Act of 1853.
    Code:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Only 3 is correct
    (d)    All are correct

97.    Who among the following was not convicted in the Kakori Conspiracy Case.

    (a)    Rajendra Lahri
    (b)    Roshan Lal
    (c)    Ashfaq-ullah Khan
    (d)    Shahnawaz Khan

98.    Consider the following statement(s):
    1.    The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was established in 1920 with Lala Lajpat Rai as Secretary.
    2.    The Communist Party of India was established at Tashkent in 1920 by N.M. Joshi.
    3.    The Communist Party of India got established in India by Satya Bakhta at Kanpur in 1925.
    Code:
    (a)    Only 3 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Only 1 is correct
    (d)    All are correct

99.    Consider the following statement(s) about Raja Ram Mohun Roy:
    1.    He wrote a work entitled "Tuhfat-ul-Muwaheedin" in 1809 in Persian.
    2.    He established Hindu College at Calcutta in 1817 with the support of British national David Hare.
    3.    He established Vedanta College in 1825.
    4.    He established Brahmo Samaj to purify the doctrine of Hindu faith in 1829.
    5.    He got the evil custom of Sati abolished by the British in 1829.
    Code:
    (a)    Only 1, 2 and  3 are correct
    (b)    Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
    (c)    Only 3, 4, 5 are correct
    (d)    All are correct

100.    The acidity of normal rain water is due to:
    (a)    SO2    (b)    CO2
    (c)    NO2    (d)    NO3

Answers

61.    (a)
62.    (a)
63.    (d)
64.    (c)
65.    (c)
66.    (b)
67.    (b)
68.    (b)
69.    (a)
70.    (c)
71.    (c)
72.    (a)
73.    (c)
74.    (b)
75.    (a)
76.    (d)
77.    (b)
78.    (d)
79.    (b)
80.    (c)
81.    (d)
82.    (c)
83.    (a)
84.    (c)
85.    (a)
86.    (a)
87.    (c)
88.    (c)
89.    (d)
90.    (d)
91.    (c)
92.    (c)
93.    (c)
94.    (b)
95.    (b)
96.    (c)
97.    (d)
98.    (a)
99.    (d)
100.    (b)

GENERAL STUDIES - MCQs 3

1.    With reference to the Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) programme of ISRO; identify the correct statement(s);
1.    RLV is based on SCRAMJET Technology.
2.    RLV will perform docking operations for manned space flights of ISRO.
3.    RLV is the advanced version of AVATAR.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2     (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3    (d)    All

2.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    South Africa has permitted the use of artificial blood under the name Oxygent.
2.    Artificial blood is having RBC for the purpose of carrying Oxygen.
3.    The blood group of artificial blood is O negative.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2     (b)    3 only
    (c)    All    (d)    None of these

3.    Identify the correct Statement(s):
1.    Indian Ballistic Missile Defence System was tested by Intercepting Prithivi Missile.
2.    The National Missile Defence System of USA is having the use of Laser System and Missiles.
3.    The NMD of USA can intercept incoming ballistic missile only from ground based stations.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 3    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2    (d)    All

4.    Of the following identify the instruments/mechanism based on convection:
1.    Geysers
2.    Land Breeze
3.    Position of cooling unit in a Refrigerator.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2     (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All    (d)    None of these
5.    Arrange the following in the decreasing order of specific heat:
1.    Water
2.    Ice
3.    Iron
    Codes:
    (a)    1-3-2    (b)    2-1-3
    (c)    1-2-3    (d)    3-1-2

6.    Consider the following statements:
1.    An Air Conditioner (A.C.) operates by regulating temperature and humidity.
2.    A one tonne A.C. transfer 1,000 BTU (British Thermal Unit) of heat from the Room in One Hour.
3.    One BTU is equivalent to 1055 Joules.
Choose the correct statement(s) is/are:
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 3    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2    (d)    All

7.    Consider the following statements:
1.    Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) uses x-rays whereas CT Scan (Computed Tomography) does not use x-rays.
2.    The PET Scan uses tracer technique based on radioactive substances.
    The correct statements is/are:
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None of these



8.    From the given disorder identify the Mendelian disorders:
1.    Haemophilia
2.    Down's Syndrome
3.    Turner Syndrome
4.    Cystic Fibrosis
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 4    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3    (d)    2 and 4
9.    Of the following identify the symptoms of AIDS:
1.    Severe pain in the mucuous membrane
2.    Pain in Joint
3.    Swelling of Lymph nodes
4.    Loss of 10% or more of body weight.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    3 and 4
    (c)    2 and 3        (d)    All

10.    In human beings interferons are produced by the:
1.    Leucocytes
2.    Fibroblasts
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None of these

11.    The "Synthetic Aperture Radar" Technology is used in:
1.    RISAT-1    2.    RISAT-2
3.    CARTOSAT    4.    KALPANA
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 4
    (b)    3 and 4
    (c)    2 and 3
    (d)    1 and 2

12.    The Digital Versatile Disc (DVD) and Blue Ray Disc (BD) differ from each other like:
1.    In DVD data is stored in between two layers of polycarbonate material having thickness of .6 mm each. In BD data is stored on the surface of a layer having thickness of 1.1 mm.
2.    DVD can store upto 4.7 GB of data whereas BD can store upto 27 GB only.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None of these
13.    The overdose of alcohol results in:
    (a)    Liver disorder
    (b)    Respiratory failure
    (c)    Insomnia
    (d)    None of these

14.    The insectivorous plants:
1.    Grow in nitrogen deficient conditions.
2.    Capture insects to obtain nitrogen.
3.    Often have colourless parts.
4.    Are having glandular hairs which secrete digestive enzymes.
    Codes:
    (a)    1, 3 and 4
    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    1, 2 and 4


15.    Identify the correct statement(s) with respect to fats:
1.    Essential fat are both saturated and unsaturated in nature.
2.    Arachidonic acid is a type of essential fatty acid.
3.    Fish is a rich source of PUFA (Poly Unsaturated Fatty Acid)
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3        (d)    All


16.    The Bast Fibres are:
    1.    Obtained from the xylem.
    2.    Produced by the hemp and Jute plants.
    3.    Commercially valuable
    Codes:
    (a)    2 and 3        (b)    1 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2        (d)    All

17.    Identify the correct matched pair(s):
        Common Name        Phylum
    1.    Jelly Fish    -    Mollusca
    2.    Squid    -    Coelanterata
    3.    Duck Billed     -    Mammalia
        Platypus
    4.    Sea Urchin    -    Echinodermata
    Codes:

    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    3 and 4
    (c)    1 and 4        (d)    2 and 3

18.    HIV which causes AIDS is the acute form of infection:
1.    Is Retrovirus in nature.
2.    Found to transfer only their DNA in the host cell for causing infection.
3.    For the prevention of HIV, ART (Anti Retroviral Therapy) uses six different types of drugs.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    1 and 3    (d)    All


19.    F-22 Raptor which is a fighter aircraft:
1.    Belongs to fifth generation of fighter aircraft.
2.    Is having hypersonic speed and advanced stealth technology.
3.    Is manufactured by Boeing.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 3
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2
    (d)    All

20.    An inherited disease of nervous system in humans called creatzfeldt-Jacob diseases is caused by:
    (a)    Virus    (b)    Viroids
    (c)    Prions    (d)    Bacteria

21.    Sun hemp which is a legume crop is famous for:
1.    Use in the manufacturing of currency paper.
2.    Use as a green manure.
3.    Producing bast Fibres.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 3
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1, 2 and 3   
    (d)    None of these

22.    Of the given identify the true statements:
1.    Parathormone raises blood calcium level.
2.    Vasopressin regulates water reabsorption by the Kidney.
3.    Calcitonin increases blood Calcium level.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 3    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2    (d)    1, 2 and 3

23.    The enzymes of Lysosomes are:
1.    Hydrolytic in nature.
2.    Functional in alkaline pH
3.    Responsible for the name "suicidal bags" for Lysosomes.
    Codes:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3
    (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    None of these

24.    Consider the following statement(s) in relations to transformer and choose the correct alternative:
1.    Transformer operates by using both A.C. and D.C.
2.    In a stepdown transformers the number of turns in the primary coil is more than the number of turns in the secondary coil.
3.    Inside a transformer the constant magnetic field does not produce EMF in the secondary coil.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3        (d)    All

25.    Consider the following statements in relations to the nuclear reactors and choose the correct alternative:
1.    The Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR) uses natural Uranium as the Fuel.
2.    The Fast Breader Reactor (FBR) uses liquid Sodium as the moderator.
3.    The Advanced Heavy Water Reactor (AHWR) will be based on U233 as the Fuel.
4.    The French Company Areva is building the European Pressurized Reactors (EPR) at Jaitapur in Maharashtra.
    Codes:
    (a)    1, 3 and 4
    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 2 and 4
    (d)    1 and 4

26.    Consider the following statement(s) and choose the correct alternatives:
1.    Sodium Carbonate is used for the treatment of Hard Water.
2.    Gypsum is added to the cement to increase the rate of setting.
3.    Silica gel is kept in the medicine bottles for absorbing the moisture.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

27.    The Chemicals which are used as the Fire-extinguishers is/are:
1.    Dry Ice/Solid Carbon-Di-oxide.
2.    Pyrene/Carbon Tetra Chloride
3.    Sodium Bi-carbonate
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    2 only    (d)    All

28.    Consider the following statements:
1.    Superconductivity is demonstrated by different materials below critical temperature.
2.    Ceramic becomes super-conducting at a higher temperature than the metals.
3.    Iron demonstrates super-conductivity at 56 Kelvin.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    1, 2 and 3
29.    Consider the following statements in relations to Plasma TV and choose the correct option:
1.    In Plasma TV a mixture of noble gases is filled between two panels of glasses.
2.    The display panel of Plasma TV is less than 4 inches thick.
3.    Plasma TV consumes less power than the Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) TV.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3    (d)    1, 2 and 3


30.    The rainbow like colours in a CD is due to:
1.    Refraction    2.    Reflection
3.    Interference    4.    Diffraction
    Codes:
    (a)    2 and 3        (b)    3 and 4
    (c)    1 and 3        (d)    2 and 4

31.    Consider the following statement(s) and choose the correct alternative:
1.    Asteroids are also known as proto planets.
2.    Asteroids lies in between Mars and Jupiter
3.    Vesta is the largest Asteroid.
4.    Dawn Mission has been launched to study the asteroids.
    Codes:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3
    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 3 and 4
    (d)    1, 2 and 4

32.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The head of a comet is formed by the evaporation of the material from the frozen core.
2.    The tail of a comet is always pointed away from the sun.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None
33.    Identify the correct matched pair(s):
        Instrument    Purpose
1.    Beufort Scale    -    Wind Force
2.    Betatron    -    Electron
            Accelerator
3.    Cosmotron    -    Proton
            Accelerator
4.    Bolometer    -    Measurement
            Heat Radiation
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 4
    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    2 and 3
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

34.    DNA is the genetic material in human beings because:
    (a)    it can undergo mutation at a slower rate than RNA
    (b)    It can under go mutation at a faster rate than RNA
    (c)    DNA is found in the Chromosomes
    (d)    DNA forms genes

35.    Inhaling carbon monoxide (CO) is harmful because:
    (a)    CO forms unstable compound with Haemoglobin (Hb) in the blood and abnormally increases its O2 carrying capacity.
    (b)    CO forms unstable compound with Hb in the blood and drastically reduce its O2 carrying capacity.
    (c)    Co forms stable compound with Hb in the blood and abnormally increase its O2 carrying capacity.
    (d)    CO forms stable compound with Hb in the blood and reduce its O2 carrying capacity.

36.    Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s):
1.    The pH of human blood is slightly alkaline.
2.    The pH of human Urine is highly alkaline.
3.    The pH and temperature influence the bonding and dissociation of O2 and CO2 with Haemoglobin.
4.    The Ultrafiltered liquid from kidney is discharged directly in the form of Urine.
    Codes:
    (a)    2 and 3        (b)    3 and 4
    (c)    1 and 2        (d)    1 and 4

37.    Choose the correctly matched pair(s):
        Name of cell    Organ
1.    Oxyntic cells    -    Stomach
2.    Podocytes    -    Kidney
3.    Chief cells    -    Liver
4.    Goblet cells    -    Pancreas
Codes:
    (a)    2 and 4        (b)    1 and 4
    (c)    1 and 2        (d)    2 and 3


38.    With respect to  C -3 and C-4 plants the correct statements are:
1.    Kranz anatomy is found in C-4 plants and C-3 plants lack kranz anatomy.
2.    In C-3 plants photorespiration is more than C-4 plants.
3.    The productivity of C-3 plants is more than C-4 plants.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3    (d)    All

39.    Consider the following statements-
1.    Guttation takes place through hydathodes.
2.    Transpiration takes place through stomata.
3.    Only water is released in guttation.
    The correct statements are:
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3    (d)    All

40.    Consider the following statements-
1.    In a true fruit the fleshy part is developed from the thalamus.
2.    In a false fruit fleshy part is developed from the ovary.
3.    In a fruit seeds are developed from the ovules.
    The correct statement(s) is/are-
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    3 only        (d)    all


41.    The pair of cell organelles containing the ribosomes and DNA is-
    1.    Plastids
    2.    Endoplasmic Reticulum
    3.    Mitochondria
    4.    Golgi Complex
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2          (b)    1 and 3
    (c)    3 and 4    (d)    1 and 4


42.    Consider the following statements:
1.    E-bomb is based on the application of superconductivity
2.    E-bomb destroys only the electrical and electronics equipments and does not harm the living beings.
Correct statement(s) is/are:
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both1 and 2
    (d)    None

43.    Consider the following statements in relation to the sound waves and choose the correct statements-
1.    Sound waves are longitudinal in the liquids and the gases.
2.    Sound waves are transverse in the solids.
3.    The speed of sound waves is more in a denser medium.
    Codes:
    (a)    1  and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    3 only
    (d) All


44.    Consider the following statements-
1.    The value of acceleration due to gravity is maximum at poles.
2.    The value of acceleration due to gravity increases with altitude and decreases with depth
3.    If the value of acceleration due to gravity is high then the value of escape velocity will also be higher.
Correct statement(s) is/are:
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3    (d)    All


45. Consider the following statements:
1.    The PSLV of ISRO is having four  solid fuel, liquid fuel stages.
2.    The GSLV Mk III can launch satellite weighing upto 5.0 tonne.
3.    The GSLV Mk III can launch only INSAT satellites.
    The correct statements is/are:
    Codes:
    (a)    1  and  2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3        (d)    All

46.    Consider the following statement and choose the correct statement(s)-
1.    The range of human hearing is from 2khz to 20 khz.
2.    The limitation of human hearing is due to middle ear.
3.    The range of frequencies used in ultrasound is from 2MHZ to 25 MHZ.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    ALL    (d)    1 and 3


47.    Consider the following statement and choose the correct statement(s)-
1.    In adiabatic expansion temperature of the system increases.
2.    In isochoric process no work is done by the system.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    2 Only
    (c)    ALL        (d)    None

48.    Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s)-
1.    The rate of photosynthesis always increase with increase in CO2 levels.
2.    The light phase of the photosynthesis is affected by the increase in the temperature.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1  and 2     (d)    None

49.    Spintronics is having applications in-
    (a)    Optical Computer
    (b)    DNA computer
    (c)    Quantum Computer
    (d)    Super Computer

50.    Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s)-
1.    In mitotic cell division the daughter cells are having the same number of chromosomes as in the  parent cell.
2.    In meiotic cell division in the first cycle the number of chromosomes becomes half.
3.    Chiasmata is formed during meiosis cell division-II.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All    (d)    1 and 3

- Answers

1.    (a)
2.    (b)
3.    (c)
4.    (c)
5.    (c)
6.    (a)
7.    (b)
8.    (a)
9.    (b)
10.    (c)
11.    (d)
12.    (a)
13.    (b)
14.    (d)
15.    (b)
16.    (a)
17.    (b)
18.    (a)
19.    (c)
20.    (c)
21.    (c)
22.    (c)
23.    (c)
24.    (b)
25.    (a)
26.    (c)
27.    (d)
28.    (d)
29.    (a)
30.    (d)
31.    (d)
32.    (c)
33.    (d)
34.    (a)
35.    (d)
36.    (d)
37.    (c)
38.    (a)
39.    (a)
40.    (c)
41.    (b)
42.    (c)
43.    (d)
44.    (c)
45.    (a)
46.    (a)
47.    (b)
48.    (d)
49.    (c)
50.    (a)

GENERAL STUDIES - MCQs 2

51.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The first Jain Council was held at Patliputra to codify the teachings of Jain Saints
2.    The first Buddhist Council was held at Valabhi to codify the teachings of Gautam Buddha.

    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Both are correct
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct


52.    Consider the following statements:
1.    Mudrarakshasha of Vishakhadatta is a contemporary work of Mauryan Dynasty
2.    Indica of Megasthenese provide elaborate account of City Administration during Mauryan times.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Both are correct
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

53.    Consider the following statements:
1.    Alauddin Khalji started his market reforms to counter the Mongol invasions.
2.    There were six Mongol invasions during the reign of Alauddin Khalji
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Both are correct
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct


54.    Match the following:
    Religious policies        Year
    of Akbar
A.    Ibadat Khana    1.    1562
B.    Issue of Mahzar    2.    1582
C.    Din-e-Elahi    3.    1579
D.    Abolition of forcible    4.    1575
    conversion to Islam
    Codes:
        A    B    C    D
    (a)    1    2    3    4
    (b)    2    1    4    3
    (c)    3    1    4    2
    (d)    4    3    2    1
55.    Consider the following statements about Money Bill:
1.    It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
2.    It can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
3.    The provision of Money Bill is mentioned under Article 108 of the Indian Constitution.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Only 3 is correct
    (d)    All are correct

56.    Match the following:
        Article    Provision
A.    Art. 262    1.    Grants-in-aid by the Centre to the States.    
B.    Art. 263    2.    Inter-State water dispute tribunal.
C.    Art. 275    3.    Inter-State Council
D.    Art. 280    4.    Finance Commission.
    Codes:
        A    B    C    D
    (a)    1    2    3    4
    (b)    2    3    1    4
    (c)    3    2    1    4
    (d)    2    1    3    4

57.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Lower House of Indian Parliament is a permanent body.
2.    All the members of the Lower House are elected through and indirect elections.
3.    According to Constitutional Provision there are 250 members in the Lower House.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is incorrect
    (b)    Only 2 is incorrect
    (c)    Only 3 is incorrect
    (d)    All are incorrect

58.    Consider the following statements:
1.    It is mandatory for the Governor of any State to reserve a bill that affects the existence of the High Court, for the consideration of the President.
2.    It is the discretionary power of the Governor to suggest the President for the imposition of the President Rule in the State in case the Constitutional machinery has become dysfunctional.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Both 1 and 2 are correct
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

59.    Match the following:
        Article    Provision
A.    Art. 15    1.    Participation of workers in the Management of Industry.
B.    Art. 21    2.    Uniform Civil Code
C.    Art. 44    3.    Right to Life and Liberty.
D.    Art. 43A    4.    Prohibition of discrimination on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth.
    Codes:
        A    B    C    D
    (a)    1    4    3    2
    (b)    2    3    1    4
    (c)    3    2    1    4
    (d)    4    3    2    1

60.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The province of Sindh was annexed by the British East India Company during the Governor Generalship of Lord Dalhousie
2.    The province of Punjab was annexed during the Governor Generalship of Lord Ellenborough.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Both are correct
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

61.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Congres-Swaraj Party was established at the Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress in 1922.
2.    The Congress-Swaraj Party elected Vallabh Bhai Patel as the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in 1925.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Both are correct
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct


62.    Arrange the following trial of the British against the Communist Leaders and Groups in Chronological order:
1.    The Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case
2.    The Peshawar Conspiracy Case.
3.    The Meerut Conspiracy Case.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 - 2 - 3
    (b)    3 - 2 - 1
    (c)    2 - 1 - 3
    (d)    3 - 1 - 2


63.    Match the following:
    Wars            Governor
                    General
A.    First Anglo-Maratha     1.    Lord Hastings
    War
B.    Second Anglo-Maratha    2.    Lord Wellesly
    War
C.    Third Anglo-Maratha    3.    Warren
    War        Hasting
D.    Second Anglo-Sikh    4.    Lord Dalhousie
    War
    Codes:
        A    B    C    D
    (a)    1    2    3    4
    (b)    2    1    4    3
    (c)    3    1    4    2
    (d)    3    2    1    4

64.    Match the following:
    Social Reform    Legislation
A.    Abolition of Sati     1.    Regulation XV of
            1856
B.    Legalization of Widow    2.    Regulation V of
    re-marriage        1843
C.    Abolition of Slavery    3.    Regulation XVII
            of 1829
    Codes:
        A    B    C
    (a)    1    2    3
    (b)    2    1    3
    (c)    3    1    2
    (d)    3    2    1

65.    Consider the following statements:
1.    Dadabhai Naoroji is considered as the first economic thinker of India.
2.    Dadabhai Naoroji highlighted the drain of wealth from India to Britain in his book “The Economic History of India”.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Both are correct
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct


66.    Match the following:
        List-I    List-II
A.    National Commission    1.    89th Amendment
    for Scheduled Castes        2003
B.    National Commission    2.    65th Amendment
    for Scheduled Tribes        1990
C.    J &K Preventive    3.    1967
    Detention (Amendment)
    Act
    Codes:
        A    B    C
    (a)    2    1    3
    (b)    1    2    3
    (c)    3    1    2




67.    President may order remove from office the Chairman or any member of UPSC on the ground of:
1.    Is adjudged an insolvent.
2.    Engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.
3.    Is in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind and body.
    Correct statement(s) is/are:

    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    All


68.    Consider the following statement:
1.    The power of parliament to amend the constitution is derived from Articles 245, 246 and 368.
2.    Parliament will have power from the date of decision to amend any of the provision of Part III of the Constitution.
    Correct statement(s) is/are:
    (a)    1 Only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None of the above


69.    Consider the following statement:
    Assertion (A):    India is secular country.
    Reason (R):    Only there shall be no ‘State Religion’ in India.
    Code:
    (a)    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (b)    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c)    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
    (d)    (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

70.    Consider the following statement:
    Assertion (A):    India has federal system.
    Reason (R):    India has opted  Single Constitution.
    Code:
    (a)    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (b)    Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
    (c)    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
    (d)    (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.


71.    Match the following:
        List-A    List-B
A.    MISA    1.    1974
B.    COFEPOSA    2.    1971
C.    NSA    3.    1950
D.    Preventive Detention    4.    1980
     Act
    Codes:
        A    B    C    D
    (a)    2    1    4    3
    (b)    3    4    1    2
    (c)    4    3    2    1
    (d)    4    2    3    1


72.    Consider the following statement regarding to J & K state.
1.    The provisions of Article 238 shall not apply in relation to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
2.    The provision of Article 1 shall apply in relation to J & K state.
    Correct statement(s) is/are:
    (a)    1 Only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None of the above


73.    Consider the following statement regarding to special leave to appeal:
    (a)    When the judgement is tainted with serious legal infirmities.
    (b)    When the petition would mean multiple claim on the same cause of action.
    (c)    Notice was not given to the injustice.
    (d)    The petitioner has suffered injustice

74.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Provision of Preventive Detention is mentioned under Article 23 of the Indian Constitution.
2.    The concept of Preventive Detention is based on anticipation of any anti-social or anti-national activities.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Both 1 and 2 are correct
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct


75.    Answer the following statements:
1.    Naxalism has emerged as the greatest threat to internal security of India.
2.    The Red Corridor Area extends from Tirupati in Nepal to Pashupati in Andhra Pradesh.
3.    Grey Hounds are special military force to tackle naxal menace in Chhattisgarh.
4.    Naxalism emerged from the Naxalbari Village in Bihar.
5.    The Naxal Movement was started by Charu Majumdar and Kanu Sanyal.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
    (b)    Only 3, 4 and 5 are correct
    (c)    Only 1, 2 and 5 are correct
    (d)    Only 1, 3 and 5 are correct

76.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The President can appoint a Governor of a State to look after another State as a Common Governor.
2.    The State Legislative Council has been established in all the States and UTs.
3.    The State Legislative Council is mentioned under Article 167 of the Indian Constitution.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Only 3 is correct
    (d)    All are correct

77.    Consider the following statements:
(A).    The Supreme Court is apex Judicial Body of India.
(R).    The Supreme Court has got the appellate power to hear cases after the verdicts of Lower Judiciary.
    Codes:
    (a)    Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    (b)    Both A are R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    (c)    A is correct but R is incorrect.
    (d)    A is incorrect but R is correct.


78.    Consider the following statements about Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
1.    It comprises of 30 members, 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 Members from Rajya Sabha.
2.    The Chairman of PAC submit its report to the President of India.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Both 1 and 2 are correct
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct


79.    Consider the following statements about the Estimate Committee.
1.    It comprises of 22 members, 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
2.    It suggests measures to maintain efficiency and economy in Administration of India.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Both 1 and 2 are correct
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2 is correct


80.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Joint Sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is called by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2.    The Joint Sitting of the two Houses is presided by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
3.    In case of the Constitution Amendment Bill there is no provision for the Joint Sitting of the two Houses.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Only 3 is correct
    (d)    All are correct


81.    Consider the following statements:
(A).    The Planning Commission of India is an extra- Constitutional Body
(R).    It was not established under the provision of Indian Constitution.
    Codes:
    (a)    Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    (b)    Both A are R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    (c)    A is correct but R is incorrect.
    (d)    A is incorrect but R is correct.

82.    High Court has no power:
    (a)    to issued writs where breach of Fundamental Right.
    (b)    To issue writs in case where breach of right, is alleged.
    (c)    To issue writs to compel the government to change its policy unvolving expenditure.
    (d)    To issue Public Interest Litigation writ.




83.    Mandamus can be issued:
    (a)    Against Tribunal has refused to carry out the intravires directions of its supernor Tribunal.
    (b)    If the concerned officer in exercises of his duty exercises, discretion or power against Constitution Power
    (c)    Directing a subordinate Legislative authority to enact or not to enact a rule which is competent to enact.
    (d)    Directing the Principle to fix the necessary number for admission to Post Graduate.


84.    High Court does not have power of uperintendence over which Court:
    (a)    District Court
    (b)    D.M.
    (c)    Sale Tax Officer
    (d)    Panchayat Raj



85.    Consider the following statement Regarding to Money Bill:
    (a)    The imposition, aboilition remission of any tax.
    (b)    The appropriation of Money out the consolidated fund of India.
    (c)    The regulation of the borrowing of money.
    (d)    The emoluments and allowances of President.

86.    Article 32 is confined to enforce upto right:
    (a)    Fundamental rights given by the  constitution.
    (b)    Constitutional rights, not having the status of fundamental rights.
    (c)    Statutory rights
    (d)    Contractual rights

87.    In a case it was decided that President is not bound to hear the petitioner on his mercey Petition.
    (a)    Nanawati Vs. State of Bombay AIR 1961 SC, 122
    (b)    Rao Vs Union of India AIR 1971 SC, 1002.
    (c)    Sanjeev Vs. State of Madras AIR 1969 SC, 783
    (d)    Magan Bhai Vs. UOI AIR 1969 SC, 122



88.    Match the following:
    Article                                 Provision
    A.   4th Schedule   1.        Allocation  of the number of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States-the upper house of Parliament) per States or Union Territory.
    B.   6th Schedule    2.    Provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam.
    C.  7th Schedule    3.    The Union (Central Government) ,States,             and Concurrent (dual) lists of responsibilities.
    D.   11th Schedule    4.    Panchayt Raj (Rural Development.
    Codes:
        A    B    C    D
    (a)    1    2    3    4
    (b)    2    3    1    4
    (c)    3    2    1    4
    (d)    4    3    2    1

89.    Fundamental Duties is incorporated as part IV A of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
    1.    to abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem.
    2.    to defend the country
    3.    to preserve heritage of our composite culture;
    4.    to safeguard public property
    Choose the correct option/options from the list given below:
    Codes:
    (a)     1, 2 and 3 are correct
    (b)     1,2 and 4 are correct
    (c)     1, 3 and 4 are correct
    (d)    All are correct


90.    The powers of the Governor are:
    1.    He/She    appoints   the    Chief  Minister   and   the   council   of     Ministers, the Advocate-General and the members of the State Public Service Commission.
    2.    The Governor nominates one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the Legislative Assembly of his State.
    3.    The Governor can promulgate ordinances during the period, when the State Legislature is not meeting.
    4.    The Governor has the power to grant pardon, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments. But he has no power to pardon death sentence.
    Choose the correct option /options from the list given below: Codes:
    (a)     1, 2 is correct
    (b)     1, 2 and 3 are correct
    (c)     2, 3 and 4 are correct
    (d)    All are correct



91.    Which of the following is incorrect about Supreme Court?
    (a)    It has the power to punish by fine and imprisonment any person guilty of contempt of its authority.
    (b)    It is a court of record and has all the power of such court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
    (c)    It is bound by its earlier decision and cannot depart from them.
    (d)    Its records are admitted in evidence and cannot be questioned when produced in any court of law. 





92.    Which of the following/is not an automatic consequence of proclamation of emergency?
    (a)    Extension of Union’s executive power to issue the direction to any state as to the manner in which its executive power has to be exercised
    (b)    Extension of the power of Parliament to the making of legislation in regard to items of State list.
    (c)    Suspension            of           the enforcement of fundamental right except those conferred by Article 20 and 21.
    (d)    Suspension of Article 19 under the provisions of Article 358.



93.    On receipt of the report from the Governor   of   a   state   that   the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, the president of India under Article 356.
    (a)    Has to dismiss the state government and dissolve state assembly.
    (b)    May refuse to impose President’s rule in the state.
    (c)    Has to dismiss the government but keep the Legislative Assembly in the state under suspended animation.
    (d)    Has to impose president’s rule in the state.


94.    Which of the following statement is correct:
    (a)    Whether a situation exists for the          proclamation          of emergency, is a matter to be decided as per the subjective satisfaction of executive
    (b)    Whether the situation requires proclamation of emergency, is to decided by the parliament
    (c)    Whether a situation exists for the proclamation of emergency, can be challenged before the court of law
    (d)    All of the above



95.    The state law on a subject in the concurrent list were have precedence over the Union law
    (a)    If it was passed earlier.
    (b)    If the bill was reserved for President's assent before the enactment of law on same subject by Parliament.
    (c)    If the state law has a bigger significance as compared to the law of Parliament.
    (d)    If the state law was drafted much better than the Union law.




96.    Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are corrects:
    1.    Residuary Powers have been given to the Union Parliament.
    2.    In the matter of residuary powers the  Australia.
    3.    The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is decided by parliament.
    4.    The government of India Act 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of Governor Generals.
    (a)    1 and 4        (b)    1, 2 and 3
    (c)    1, 3 and 4        (d)    1, 2 and 4




97    Legal Services Day is observed on:
    (a)    November 9
    (b)    December 9
    (c)    August 9 
    (d)    None of these



98.    The Legislative Council consists of:
    1.    1/3 members elected by Legislative Assembly.
    2.    1/3 members elected by Local Bodies.
    3.    1/12     members    elected    by University Graduates.
    4.    1/12    members    elected    by Teachers. Choose the correct option /options from the list given below: Codes:
    (a)     1, 2 and 3 are correct
    (b)     2, 3 and 4 are correct
    (c)     1,3 and 4 are correct
    (d)    All are correct


99.    Indicate the provisions of Indian Constitu tion relating to secularism? They are:
    1.    Preamble
    2.    Right to Equality (Art. 14-18)
    3.    1/12 members elected by University Graduates.
    4.    Cultural and Educational Righls (Art. 29-30) Choose the correct option /options from the list given below: Codes;
    (a)     1, 2 and 3 are correct
    (b)    2, 3 and 4 are correct
    (c)    2, 3 and 4 are correct
    (d)    All are correct


100.    There are certain spheres where the Rajya Sabha alone has the authority. What are they?
    1.   Initiating the process of removal of Vice-President [Art. 67(b)]
    2.   Initiating the creation of New All-India Service [Art. 312(1)]
    3.   Authorising the Parliament to make temporary Union Legislation with respect to matters in the States List [Art. 249(1)].
    Choose the correct option/options from the list given below:
    Codes:
    (a)     1 and 2 are correct
    (b)     1 and 3 are correct
    (c)    All are correct
    (d)    None of these

Answers

51.    (a)
52.    (b)
53.    (c)
54.    (d)
55.    (a)
56.    (b)
57.    (d)
58.    (c)
59.    (d)
60.    (d)
61.    (d)
62.    (c)
63.    (d)
64.    (c)
65.    (a)
66.    (a)
67.    (d)
68.    (d)
69.    (c)
70.    (d)
71.    (a)
72.    (c)
73.    (a)
74.    (b)
75.    (b)
76.    (a)
77.    (a)
78.    (d)
79.    (b)
80.    (c)
81.    (a)
82.    (c)
83.    (a)
84.    (c)
85.    (d)
86.    (a)
87.    (a)
88.    (a)
89.    (d) 
90.    (d)  
91.    (c)
92.    (c)
93.    (b)
94.    (a)
95.    (b)
96.    (a)
97     (a)
98.    (d)
99.    (d)
100.    (c)