51. Consider the following statements:
1. The first Jain Council was held at Patliputra to codify the teachings of Jain Saints
2. The first Buddhist Council was held at Valabhi to codify the teachings of Gautam Buddha.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
52. Consider the following statements:
1. Mudrarakshasha of Vishakhadatta is a contemporary work of Mauryan Dynasty
2. Indica of Megasthenese provide elaborate account of City Administration during Mauryan times.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
53. Consider the following statements:
1. Alauddin Khalji started his market reforms to counter the Mongol invasions.
2. There were six Mongol invasions during the reign of Alauddin Khalji
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
54. Match the following:
Religious policies Year
of Akbar
A. Ibadat Khana 1. 1562
B. Issue of Mahzar 2. 1582
C. Din-e-Elahi 3. 1579
D. Abolition of forcible 4. 1575
conversion to Islam
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
55. Consider the following statements about Money Bill:
1. It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
2. It can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
3. The provision of Money Bill is mentioned under Article 108 of the Indian Constitution.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 3 is correct
(d) All are correct
56. Match the following:
Article Provision
A. Art. 262 1. Grants-in-aid by the Centre to the States.
B. Art. 263 2. Inter-State water dispute tribunal.
C. Art. 275 3. Inter-State Council
D. Art. 280 4. Finance Commission.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
57. Consider the following statements:
1. The Lower House of Indian Parliament is a permanent body.
2. All the members of the Lower House are elected through and indirect elections.
3. According to Constitutional Provision there are 250 members in the Lower House.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is incorrect
(b) Only 2 is incorrect
(c) Only 3 is incorrect
(d) All are incorrect
58. Consider the following statements:
1. It is mandatory for the Governor of any State to reserve a bill that affects the existence of the High Court, for the consideration of the President.
2. It is the discretionary power of the Governor to suggest the President for the imposition of the President Rule in the State in case the Constitutional machinery has become dysfunctional.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
59. Match the following:
Article Provision
A. Art. 15 1. Participation of workers in the Management of Industry.
B. Art. 21 2. Uniform Civil Code
C. Art. 44 3. Right to Life and Liberty.
D. Art. 43A 4. Prohibition of discrimination on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
60. Consider the following statements:
1. The province of Sindh was annexed by the British East India Company during the Governor Generalship of Lord Dalhousie
2. The province of Punjab was annexed during the Governor Generalship of Lord Ellenborough.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
61. Consider the following statements:
1. The Congres-Swaraj Party was established at the Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress in 1922.
2. The Congress-Swaraj Party elected Vallabh Bhai Patel as the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in 1925.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
62. Arrange the following trial of the British against the Communist Leaders and Groups in Chronological order:
1. The Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case
2. The Peshawar Conspiracy Case.
3. The Meerut Conspiracy Case.
Codes:
(a) 1 - 2 - 3
(b) 3 - 2 - 1
(c) 2 - 1 - 3
(d) 3 - 1 - 2
63. Match the following:
Wars Governor
General
A. First Anglo-Maratha 1. Lord Hastings
War
B. Second Anglo-Maratha 2. Lord Wellesly
War
C. Third Anglo-Maratha 3. Warren
War Hasting
D. Second Anglo-Sikh 4. Lord Dalhousie
War
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 2 1 4
64. Match the following:
Social Reform Legislation
A. Abolition of Sati 1. Regulation XV of
1856
B. Legalization of Widow 2. Regulation V of
re-marriage 1843
C. Abolition of Slavery 3. Regulation XVII
of 1829
Codes:
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2
(d) 3 2 1
65. Consider the following statements:
1. Dadabhai Naoroji is considered as the first economic thinker of India.
2. Dadabhai Naoroji highlighted the drain of wealth from India to Britain in his book “The Economic History of India”.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
66. Match the following:
List-I List-II
A. National Commission 1. 89th Amendment
for Scheduled Castes 2003
B. National Commission 2. 65th Amendment
for Scheduled Tribes 1990
C. J &K Preventive 3. 1967
Detention (Amendment)
Act
Codes:
A B C
(a) 2 1 3
(b) 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2
67. President may order remove from office the Chairman or any member of UPSC on the ground of:
1. Is adjudged an insolvent.
2. Engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.
3. Is in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind and body.
Correct statement(s) is/are:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All
68. Consider the following statement:
1. The power of parliament to amend the constitution is derived from Articles 245, 246 and 368.
2. Parliament will have power from the date of decision to amend any of the provision of Part III of the Constitution.
Correct statement(s) is/are:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
69. Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): India is secular country.
Reason (R): Only there shall be no ‘State Religion’ in India.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
70. Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): India has federal system.
Reason (R): India has opted Single Constitution.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
71. Match the following:
List-A List-B
A. MISA 1. 1974
B. COFEPOSA 2. 1971
C. NSA 3. 1950
D. Preventive Detention 4. 1980
Act
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 1
72. Consider the following statement regarding to J & K state.
1. The provisions of Article 238 shall not apply in relation to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
2. The provision of Article 1 shall apply in relation to J & K state.
Correct statement(s) is/are:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
73. Consider the following statement regarding to special leave to appeal:
(a) When the judgement is tainted with serious legal infirmities.
(b) When the petition would mean multiple claim on the same cause of action.
(c) Notice was not given to the injustice.
(d) The petitioner has suffered injustice
74. Consider the following statements:
1. The Provision of Preventive Detention is mentioned under Article 23 of the Indian Constitution.
2. The concept of Preventive Detention is based on anticipation of any anti-social or anti-national activities.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
75. Answer the following statements:
1. Naxalism has emerged as the greatest threat to internal security of India.
2. The Red Corridor Area extends from Tirupati in Nepal to Pashupati in Andhra Pradesh.
3. Grey Hounds are special military force to tackle naxal menace in Chhattisgarh.
4. Naxalism emerged from the Naxalbari Village in Bihar.
5. The Naxal Movement was started by Charu Majumdar and Kanu Sanyal.
Codes:
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) Only 3, 4 and 5 are correct
(c) Only 1, 2 and 5 are correct
(d) Only 1, 3 and 5 are correct
1. The first Jain Council was held at Patliputra to codify the teachings of Jain Saints
2. The first Buddhist Council was held at Valabhi to codify the teachings of Gautam Buddha.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
52. Consider the following statements:
1. Mudrarakshasha of Vishakhadatta is a contemporary work of Mauryan Dynasty
2. Indica of Megasthenese provide elaborate account of City Administration during Mauryan times.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
53. Consider the following statements:
1. Alauddin Khalji started his market reforms to counter the Mongol invasions.
2. There were six Mongol invasions during the reign of Alauddin Khalji
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
54. Match the following:
Religious policies Year
of Akbar
A. Ibadat Khana 1. 1562
B. Issue of Mahzar 2. 1582
C. Din-e-Elahi 3. 1579
D. Abolition of forcible 4. 1575
conversion to Islam
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
55. Consider the following statements about Money Bill:
1. It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
2. It can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
3. The provision of Money Bill is mentioned under Article 108 of the Indian Constitution.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 3 is correct
(d) All are correct
56. Match the following:
Article Provision
A. Art. 262 1. Grants-in-aid by the Centre to the States.
B. Art. 263 2. Inter-State water dispute tribunal.
C. Art. 275 3. Inter-State Council
D. Art. 280 4. Finance Commission.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
57. Consider the following statements:
1. The Lower House of Indian Parliament is a permanent body.
2. All the members of the Lower House are elected through and indirect elections.
3. According to Constitutional Provision there are 250 members in the Lower House.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is incorrect
(b) Only 2 is incorrect
(c) Only 3 is incorrect
(d) All are incorrect
58. Consider the following statements:
1. It is mandatory for the Governor of any State to reserve a bill that affects the existence of the High Court, for the consideration of the President.
2. It is the discretionary power of the Governor to suggest the President for the imposition of the President Rule in the State in case the Constitutional machinery has become dysfunctional.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
59. Match the following:
Article Provision
A. Art. 15 1. Participation of workers in the Management of Industry.
B. Art. 21 2. Uniform Civil Code
C. Art. 44 3. Right to Life and Liberty.
D. Art. 43A 4. Prohibition of discrimination on the basis of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
60. Consider the following statements:
1. The province of Sindh was annexed by the British East India Company during the Governor Generalship of Lord Dalhousie
2. The province of Punjab was annexed during the Governor Generalship of Lord Ellenborough.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
61. Consider the following statements:
1. The Congres-Swaraj Party was established at the Gaya Session of the Indian National Congress in 1922.
2. The Congress-Swaraj Party elected Vallabh Bhai Patel as the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in 1925.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
62. Arrange the following trial of the British against the Communist Leaders and Groups in Chronological order:
1. The Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case
2. The Peshawar Conspiracy Case.
3. The Meerut Conspiracy Case.
Codes:
(a) 1 - 2 - 3
(b) 3 - 2 - 1
(c) 2 - 1 - 3
(d) 3 - 1 - 2
63. Match the following:
Wars Governor
General
A. First Anglo-Maratha 1. Lord Hastings
War
B. Second Anglo-Maratha 2. Lord Wellesly
War
C. Third Anglo-Maratha 3. Warren
War Hasting
D. Second Anglo-Sikh 4. Lord Dalhousie
War
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 2 1 4
64. Match the following:
Social Reform Legislation
A. Abolition of Sati 1. Regulation XV of
1856
B. Legalization of Widow 2. Regulation V of
re-marriage 1843
C. Abolition of Slavery 3. Regulation XVII
of 1829
Codes:
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2
(d) 3 2 1
65. Consider the following statements:
1. Dadabhai Naoroji is considered as the first economic thinker of India.
2. Dadabhai Naoroji highlighted the drain of wealth from India to Britain in his book “The Economic History of India”.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
66. Match the following:
List-I List-II
A. National Commission 1. 89th Amendment
for Scheduled Castes 2003
B. National Commission 2. 65th Amendment
for Scheduled Tribes 1990
C. J &K Preventive 3. 1967
Detention (Amendment)
Act
Codes:
A B C
(a) 2 1 3
(b) 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2
67. President may order remove from office the Chairman or any member of UPSC on the ground of:
1. Is adjudged an insolvent.
2. Engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.
3. Is in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind and body.
Correct statement(s) is/are:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All
68. Consider the following statement:
1. The power of parliament to amend the constitution is derived from Articles 245, 246 and 368.
2. Parliament will have power from the date of decision to amend any of the provision of Part III of the Constitution.
Correct statement(s) is/are:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
69. Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): India is secular country.
Reason (R): Only there shall be no ‘State Religion’ in India.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
70. Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): India has federal system.
Reason (R): India has opted Single Constitution.
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
71. Match the following:
List-A List-B
A. MISA 1. 1974
B. COFEPOSA 2. 1971
C. NSA 3. 1950
D. Preventive Detention 4. 1980
Act
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 1
72. Consider the following statement regarding to J & K state.
1. The provisions of Article 238 shall not apply in relation to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
2. The provision of Article 1 shall apply in relation to J & K state.
Correct statement(s) is/are:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
73. Consider the following statement regarding to special leave to appeal:
(a) When the judgement is tainted with serious legal infirmities.
(b) When the petition would mean multiple claim on the same cause of action.
(c) Notice was not given to the injustice.
(d) The petitioner has suffered injustice
74. Consider the following statements:
1. The Provision of Preventive Detention is mentioned under Article 23 of the Indian Constitution.
2. The concept of Preventive Detention is based on anticipation of any anti-social or anti-national activities.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
75. Answer the following statements:
1. Naxalism has emerged as the greatest threat to internal security of India.
2. The Red Corridor Area extends from Tirupati in Nepal to Pashupati in Andhra Pradesh.
3. Grey Hounds are special military force to tackle naxal menace in Chhattisgarh.
4. Naxalism emerged from the Naxalbari Village in Bihar.
5. The Naxal Movement was started by Charu Majumdar and Kanu Sanyal.
Codes:
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) Only 3, 4 and 5 are correct
(c) Only 1, 2 and 5 are correct
(d) Only 1, 3 and 5 are correct
76. Consider the following
statements:
1. The President can appoint a Governor of a State to look after another State as a Common Governor.
2. The State Legislative Council has been established in all the States and UTs.
3. The State Legislative Council is mentioned under Article 167 of the Indian Constitution.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 3 is correct
(d) All are correct
77. Consider the following statements:
(A). The Supreme Court is apex Judicial Body of India.
(R). The Supreme Court has got the appellate power to hear cases after the verdicts of Lower Judiciary.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A are R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct.
78. Consider the following statements about Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
1. It comprises of 30 members, 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 Members from Rajya Sabha.
2. The Chairman of PAC submit its report to the President of India.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
79. Consider the following statements about the Estimate Committee.
1. It comprises of 22 members, 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
2. It suggests measures to maintain efficiency and economy in Administration of India.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
80. Consider the following statements:
1. The Joint Sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is called by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Joint Sitting of the two Houses is presided by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
3. In case of the Constitution Amendment Bill there is no provision for the Joint Sitting of the two Houses.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 3 is correct
(d) All are correct
81. Consider the following statements:
(A). The Planning Commission of India is an extra- Constitutional Body
(R). It was not established under the provision of Indian Constitution.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A are R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct.
82. High Court has no power:
(a) to issued writs where breach of Fundamental Right.
(b) To issue writs in case where breach of right, is alleged.
(c) To issue writs to compel the government to change its policy unvolving expenditure.
(d) To issue Public Interest Litigation writ.
83. Mandamus can be issued:
(a) Against Tribunal has refused to carry out the intravires directions of its supernor Tribunal.
(b) If the concerned officer in exercises of his duty exercises, discretion or power against Constitution Power
(c) Directing a subordinate Legislative authority to enact or not to enact a rule which is competent to enact.
(d) Directing the Principle to fix the necessary number for admission to Post Graduate.
84. High Court does not have power of uperintendence over which Court:
(a) District Court
(b) D.M.
(c) Sale Tax Officer
(d) Panchayat Raj
85. Consider the following statement Regarding to Money Bill:
(a) The imposition, aboilition remission of any tax.
(b) The appropriation of Money out the consolidated fund of India.
(c) The regulation of the borrowing of money.
(d) The emoluments and allowances of President.
86. Article 32 is confined to enforce upto right:
(a) Fundamental rights given by the constitution.
(b) Constitutional rights, not having the status of fundamental rights.
(c) Statutory rights
(d) Contractual rights
87. In a case it was decided that President is not bound to hear the petitioner on his mercey Petition.
(a) Nanawati Vs. State of Bombay AIR 1961 SC, 122
(b) Rao Vs Union of India AIR 1971 SC, 1002.
(c) Sanjeev Vs. State of Madras AIR 1969 SC, 783
(d) Magan Bhai Vs. UOI AIR 1969 SC, 122
88. Match the following:
Article Provision
A. 4th Schedule 1. Allocation of the number of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States-the upper house of Parliament) per States or Union Territory.
B. 6th Schedule 2. Provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam.
C. 7th Schedule 3. The Union (Central Government) ,States, and Concurrent (dual) lists of responsibilities.
D. 11th Schedule 4. Panchayt Raj (Rural Development.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
89. Fundamental Duties is incorporated as part IV A of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
1. to abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. to defend the country
3. to preserve heritage of our composite culture;
4. to safeguard public property
Choose the correct option/options from the list given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1,2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
90. The powers of the Governor are:
1. He/She appoints the Chief Minister and the council of Ministers, the Advocate-General and the members of the State Public Service Commission.
2. The Governor nominates one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the Legislative Assembly of his State.
3. The Governor can promulgate ordinances during the period, when the State Legislature is not meeting.
4. The Governor has the power to grant pardon, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments. But he has no power to pardon death sentence.
Choose the correct option /options from the list given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 is correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
91. Which of the following is incorrect about Supreme Court?
(a) It has the power to punish by fine and imprisonment any person guilty of contempt of its authority.
(b) It is a court of record and has all the power of such court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
(c) It is bound by its earlier decision and cannot depart from them.
(d) Its records are admitted in evidence and cannot be questioned when produced in any court of law.
92. Which of the following/is not an automatic consequence of proclamation of emergency?
(a) Extension of Union’s executive power to issue the direction to any state as to the manner in which its executive power has to be exercised
(b) Extension of the power of Parliament to the making of legislation in regard to items of State list.
(c) Suspension of the enforcement of fundamental right except those conferred by Article 20 and 21.
(d) Suspension of Article 19 under the provisions of Article 358.
93. On receipt of the report from the Governor of a state that the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, the president of India under Article 356.
(a) Has to dismiss the state government and dissolve state assembly.
(b) May refuse to impose President’s rule in the state.
(c) Has to dismiss the government but keep the Legislative Assembly in the state under suspended animation.
(d) Has to impose president’s rule in the state.
94. Which of the following statement is correct:
(a) Whether a situation exists for the proclamation of emergency, is a matter to be decided as per the subjective satisfaction of executive
(b) Whether the situation requires proclamation of emergency, is to decided by the parliament
(c) Whether a situation exists for the proclamation of emergency, can be challenged before the court of law
(d) All of the above
95. The state law on a subject in the concurrent list were have precedence over the Union law
(a) If it was passed earlier.
(b) If the bill was reserved for President's assent before the enactment of law on same subject by Parliament.
(c) If the state law has a bigger significance as compared to the law of Parliament.
(d) If the state law was drafted much better than the Union law.
96. Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are corrects:
1. Residuary Powers have been given to the Union Parliament.
2. In the matter of residuary powers the Australia.
3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is decided by parliament.
4. The government of India Act 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of Governor Generals.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
97 Legal Services Day is observed on:
(a) November 9
(b) December 9
(c) August 9
(d) None of these
98. The Legislative Council consists of:
1. 1/3 members elected by Legislative Assembly.
2. 1/3 members elected by Local Bodies.
3. 1/12 members elected by University Graduates.
4. 1/12 members elected by Teachers. Choose the correct option /options from the list given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1,3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
99. Indicate the provisions of Indian Constitu tion relating to secularism? They are:
1. Preamble
2. Right to Equality (Art. 14-18)
3. 1/12 members elected by University Graduates.
4. Cultural and Educational Righls (Art. 29-30) Choose the correct option /options from the list given below: Codes;
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
100. There are certain spheres where the Rajya Sabha alone has the authority. What are they?
1. Initiating the process of removal of Vice-President [Art. 67(b)]
2. Initiating the creation of New All-India Service [Art. 312(1)]
3. Authorising the Parliament to make temporary Union Legislation with respect to matters in the States List [Art. 249(1)].
Choose the correct option/options from the list given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) All are correct
(d) None of these
1. The President can appoint a Governor of a State to look after another State as a Common Governor.
2. The State Legislative Council has been established in all the States and UTs.
3. The State Legislative Council is mentioned under Article 167 of the Indian Constitution.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 3 is correct
(d) All are correct
77. Consider the following statements:
(A). The Supreme Court is apex Judicial Body of India.
(R). The Supreme Court has got the appellate power to hear cases after the verdicts of Lower Judiciary.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A are R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct.
78. Consider the following statements about Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
1. It comprises of 30 members, 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 Members from Rajya Sabha.
2. The Chairman of PAC submit its report to the President of India.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
79. Consider the following statements about the Estimate Committee.
1. It comprises of 22 members, 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
2. It suggests measures to maintain efficiency and economy in Administration of India.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
80. Consider the following statements:
1. The Joint Sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is called by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Joint Sitting of the two Houses is presided by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
3. In case of the Constitution Amendment Bill there is no provision for the Joint Sitting of the two Houses.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Only 3 is correct
(d) All are correct
81. Consider the following statements:
(A). The Planning Commission of India is an extra- Constitutional Body
(R). It was not established under the provision of Indian Constitution.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A are R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct.
82. High Court has no power:
(a) to issued writs where breach of Fundamental Right.
(b) To issue writs in case where breach of right, is alleged.
(c) To issue writs to compel the government to change its policy unvolving expenditure.
(d) To issue Public Interest Litigation writ.
83. Mandamus can be issued:
(a) Against Tribunal has refused to carry out the intravires directions of its supernor Tribunal.
(b) If the concerned officer in exercises of his duty exercises, discretion or power against Constitution Power
(c) Directing a subordinate Legislative authority to enact or not to enact a rule which is competent to enact.
(d) Directing the Principle to fix the necessary number for admission to Post Graduate.
84. High Court does not have power of uperintendence over which Court:
(a) District Court
(b) D.M.
(c) Sale Tax Officer
(d) Panchayat Raj
85. Consider the following statement Regarding to Money Bill:
(a) The imposition, aboilition remission of any tax.
(b) The appropriation of Money out the consolidated fund of India.
(c) The regulation of the borrowing of money.
(d) The emoluments and allowances of President.
86. Article 32 is confined to enforce upto right:
(a) Fundamental rights given by the constitution.
(b) Constitutional rights, not having the status of fundamental rights.
(c) Statutory rights
(d) Contractual rights
87. In a case it was decided that President is not bound to hear the petitioner on his mercey Petition.
(a) Nanawati Vs. State of Bombay AIR 1961 SC, 122
(b) Rao Vs Union of India AIR 1971 SC, 1002.
(c) Sanjeev Vs. State of Madras AIR 1969 SC, 783
(d) Magan Bhai Vs. UOI AIR 1969 SC, 122
88. Match the following:
Article Provision
A. 4th Schedule 1. Allocation of the number of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States-the upper house of Parliament) per States or Union Territory.
B. 6th Schedule 2. Provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam.
C. 7th Schedule 3. The Union (Central Government) ,States, and Concurrent (dual) lists of responsibilities.
D. 11th Schedule 4. Panchayt Raj (Rural Development.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
89. Fundamental Duties is incorporated as part IV A of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
1. to abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. to defend the country
3. to preserve heritage of our composite culture;
4. to safeguard public property
Choose the correct option/options from the list given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1,2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
90. The powers of the Governor are:
1. He/She appoints the Chief Minister and the council of Ministers, the Advocate-General and the members of the State Public Service Commission.
2. The Governor nominates one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the Legislative Assembly of his State.
3. The Governor can promulgate ordinances during the period, when the State Legislature is not meeting.
4. The Governor has the power to grant pardon, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments. But he has no power to pardon death sentence.
Choose the correct option /options from the list given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 is correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
91. Which of the following is incorrect about Supreme Court?
(a) It has the power to punish by fine and imprisonment any person guilty of contempt of its authority.
(b) It is a court of record and has all the power of such court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
(c) It is bound by its earlier decision and cannot depart from them.
(d) Its records are admitted in evidence and cannot be questioned when produced in any court of law.
92. Which of the following/is not an automatic consequence of proclamation of emergency?
(a) Extension of Union’s executive power to issue the direction to any state as to the manner in which its executive power has to be exercised
(b) Extension of the power of Parliament to the making of legislation in regard to items of State list.
(c) Suspension of the enforcement of fundamental right except those conferred by Article 20 and 21.
(d) Suspension of Article 19 under the provisions of Article 358.
93. On receipt of the report from the Governor of a state that the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, the president of India under Article 356.
(a) Has to dismiss the state government and dissolve state assembly.
(b) May refuse to impose President’s rule in the state.
(c) Has to dismiss the government but keep the Legislative Assembly in the state under suspended animation.
(d) Has to impose president’s rule in the state.
94. Which of the following statement is correct:
(a) Whether a situation exists for the proclamation of emergency, is a matter to be decided as per the subjective satisfaction of executive
(b) Whether the situation requires proclamation of emergency, is to decided by the parliament
(c) Whether a situation exists for the proclamation of emergency, can be challenged before the court of law
(d) All of the above
95. The state law on a subject in the concurrent list were have precedence over the Union law
(a) If it was passed earlier.
(b) If the bill was reserved for President's assent before the enactment of law on same subject by Parliament.
(c) If the state law has a bigger significance as compared to the law of Parliament.
(d) If the state law was drafted much better than the Union law.
96. Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are corrects:
1. Residuary Powers have been given to the Union Parliament.
2. In the matter of residuary powers the Australia.
3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is decided by parliament.
4. The government of India Act 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of Governor Generals.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
97 Legal Services Day is observed on:
(a) November 9
(b) December 9
(c) August 9
(d) None of these
98. The Legislative Council consists of:
1. 1/3 members elected by Legislative Assembly.
2. 1/3 members elected by Local Bodies.
3. 1/12 members elected by University Graduates.
4. 1/12 members elected by Teachers. Choose the correct option /options from the list given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1,3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
99. Indicate the provisions of Indian Constitu tion relating to secularism? They are:
1. Preamble
2. Right to Equality (Art. 14-18)
3. 1/12 members elected by University Graduates.
4. Cultural and Educational Righls (Art. 29-30) Choose the correct option /options from the list given below: Codes;
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
100. There are certain spheres where the Rajya Sabha alone has the authority. What are they?
1. Initiating the process of removal of Vice-President [Art. 67(b)]
2. Initiating the creation of New All-India Service [Art. 312(1)]
3. Authorising the Parliament to make temporary Union Legislation with respect to matters in the States List [Art. 249(1)].
Choose the correct option/options from the list given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) All are correct
(d) None of these
Answers
51. (a)
52. (b)
53. (c)
54. (d)
55. (a)
56. (b)
57. (d)
58. (c)
59. (d)
60. (d)
61. (d)
62. (c)
63. (d)
64. (c)
65. (a)
66. (a)
67. (d)
68. (d)
69. (c)
70. (d)
71. (a)
72. (c)
73. (a)
74. (b)
75. (b)
76. (a)
77. (a)
78. (d)
79. (b)
80. (c)
81. (a)
82. (c)
83. (a)
84. (c)
85. (d)
86. (a)
87. (a)
88. (a)
89. (d)
90. (d)
91. (c)
92. (c)
93. (b)
94. (a)
95. (b)
96. (a)
97 (a)
98. (d)
99. (d)
100. (c)
52. (b)
53. (c)
54. (d)
55. (a)
56. (b)
57. (d)
58. (c)
59. (d)
60. (d)
61. (d)
62. (c)
63. (d)
64. (c)
65. (a)
66. (a)
67. (d)
68. (d)
69. (c)
70. (d)
71. (a)
72. (c)
73. (a)
74. (b)
75. (b)
76. (a)
77. (a)
78. (d)
79. (b)
80. (c)
81. (a)
82. (c)
83. (a)
84. (c)
85. (d)
86. (a)
87. (a)
88. (a)
89. (d)
90. (d)
91. (c)
92. (c)
93. (b)
94. (a)
95. (b)
96. (a)
97 (a)
98. (d)
99. (d)
100. (c)
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