1. Identify the
correct statement(s) from the following:
1. President can resign by addressing his letter to the Vice-President.
2. The impeachment process for the removal of President can be initiated in Lok Sabha only.
3. The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the election and impeachment of the President.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All are correct
2. The Central Zonal Council includes:
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Uttarakhand
3. Rajasthan
4. Madhya Pradesh
Codes:
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 4 Only
3. Choose the correct statement(s):
1. Under the provision of article 262, the Parliament has enacted the River Board Act-1956.
2. The Central Government can established River Boards on its own.
3. The Central Government has established ten inter-State water dispute tribunals.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
4. Which of the following tax(es) has been imposed by the parliament by exercising the residuary power of taxation:
1. Gift Tax
2. Wealth Tax
3. Expenditure Tax
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) All
(d) None of the above
5. Identify the correct statement(s):
1. Service tax is levied collected and appropriated by the centre.
2. Service tax was added in the Union list by the 88th Amendment Act.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
6. Identify the correct statement(s)
1. The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act (1951).
2. The tenth schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.
3. The 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added Bodo, Maithili, Dongri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All
7. The sixth Schedule includes provisions relating to the administration of tribal area in the states of:
1. Assam 2. Mizoram
3. Manipur 4. Meghalaya
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All
8. Identify the correct statement(s)
1. An Individual having Person of India Origin (PIO) card can visit India without Visa for Lifelong.
2. An Individual registered as Overseas Citizens of India can visit India without Visa for lifelong.
3. PIO card can be issued to nationals of all countries,except to person from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All
9. Which of the following rights have been included under Article 21:
1. Right to live with human dignity.
2. Right to privacy
3. Right to health
4. Right to Free Legal Aid.
Codes:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All
10. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. Living wage includes education, health, insurance etc.in addition to minimum wage.
2. A Fair wage is a mean between living wage and minimum wage.
3. Article 43 is having provision for Fair wage.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) All
(d) None of the above
11. In relation to Constitution Amendment the correct statement(s) is/are
1. It can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either House of the Parliament and also in the state legislature.
2. A bill for constitution amendment does not require the prior permission of the President.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
12. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. Adjournment only terminates the sitting of the house, where as prorogation not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the house.
2. Adjournment is done by the presiding officer of the house whereas prorogation is done by the President of India.
3. With the Adjournment the bills pending before the house gets lapsed.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All
13. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. For the adoption of Censure motion in the Lok Sabha reason should be provided whereas for the adoption of No-confidence motion in Lok Sabha the provision of reason is not must.
2. No confidence motion can be moved only against the Council of Ministers.
3. Censure motion can also be moved only against the council of ministers.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above
14. The scope of Judicial review in India is:
(a) Narrower than America because American Constitution provides for due process of law.
(b) Broader than America because Indian Constitution provides for due process of law.
(c) Broader than America because American constitution provides for procedure established by law.
(d) Same as that in America.
15. Identify the difference which exist between Indian Supreme Court and American Supreme Court:
1. Indian Supreme Court has Advisory Jurisdiction whereas American Supreme Court lacks advisory jurisdiction.
2. The appellate jurisdiction of Indian Supreme Court is broader than the appellate jurisdiction of American Supreme Court.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
16. The Earth Observation Satellites includes:
1. Resource Sat-2
2. RISAT-2
3. OCEANSAT-2
4. METSAT
Codes:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
17. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. Ordinary bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha whereas Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
2. Rajya Sabha can detain ordinary Bill for a maximum period of 6 months whereas Rajya Sabha can detain Money Bill for a maximum period of only 14 days.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
18. Which of the following is not correctly matched:
Items List
(a) Post Office Savings Union List
Bank
(b) Taxes on Mineral State List
Rights
(c) Drugs and Poisons Concurrent List
(d) Population Control State List
and Family Planning
19. A party is recognized as a national party if:
1. It secures 6% of valid votes in a state in general election of Lok Sabha and also if it wins four seats in Lok Sabha from a single state.
2. It wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election and these candidates are elected from three states.
3. It is recognised as a state party in four states.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
20. Which of the following is/are true for administrative tribunals:
1. They are established under article 323A.
2. An aggrieved Public Servant can directly approach the Supreme Court against an order of Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
3. The CAT was set up in 1985.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
21. Which of the following is/are correct for Lokpal:
1. The Administrate Reforms Commission of India (1966-70) recommended the setting of Lokpal.
2. The ARC kept the Judiciary outside the purview of Lokpal as in Sweeden
3. According to the ARC Lokpal should be appointed by the President after consultation with Chief Justice of India, the speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All
22. The committee which recommends the appointment of Central Information Commission includes:
1. Prime Minister
2. Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha.
3. Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
4. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by PM.
Codes:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All
23. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. Under article 312 Parliament can create new All India Service if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution for it.
2. In 1948, Indian Forest Service was created as the 3rd All India Service.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
24. Fundamental Duties were made a part of the constitution on the recommendation.
(a) Santhanam Committee
(b) Krishnamenon Committee
(c) John Mathai Committee
(d) Sawaran Singh Committee
25. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. Article 31A saves five categories of laws from being challenged on the grounds of the violation of Fundamental Rights.
2. Those laws which cannot be challenged are related to agricultural land reforms, industry and commerce, mining lease.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
1. President can resign by addressing his letter to the Vice-President.
2. The impeachment process for the removal of President can be initiated in Lok Sabha only.
3. The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the election and impeachment of the President.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All are correct
2. The Central Zonal Council includes:
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Uttarakhand
3. Rajasthan
4. Madhya Pradesh
Codes:
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 4 Only
3. Choose the correct statement(s):
1. Under the provision of article 262, the Parliament has enacted the River Board Act-1956.
2. The Central Government can established River Boards on its own.
3. The Central Government has established ten inter-State water dispute tribunals.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
4. Which of the following tax(es) has been imposed by the parliament by exercising the residuary power of taxation:
1. Gift Tax
2. Wealth Tax
3. Expenditure Tax
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) All
(d) None of the above
5. Identify the correct statement(s):
1. Service tax is levied collected and appropriated by the centre.
2. Service tax was added in the Union list by the 88th Amendment Act.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
6. Identify the correct statement(s)
1. The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act (1951).
2. The tenth schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.
3. The 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added Bodo, Maithili, Dongri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All
7. The sixth Schedule includes provisions relating to the administration of tribal area in the states of:
1. Assam 2. Mizoram
3. Manipur 4. Meghalaya
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All
8. Identify the correct statement(s)
1. An Individual having Person of India Origin (PIO) card can visit India without Visa for Lifelong.
2. An Individual registered as Overseas Citizens of India can visit India without Visa for lifelong.
3. PIO card can be issued to nationals of all countries,except to person from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All
9. Which of the following rights have been included under Article 21:
1. Right to live with human dignity.
2. Right to privacy
3. Right to health
4. Right to Free Legal Aid.
Codes:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All
10. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. Living wage includes education, health, insurance etc.in addition to minimum wage.
2. A Fair wage is a mean between living wage and minimum wage.
3. Article 43 is having provision for Fair wage.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) All
(d) None of the above
11. In relation to Constitution Amendment the correct statement(s) is/are
1. It can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either House of the Parliament and also in the state legislature.
2. A bill for constitution amendment does not require the prior permission of the President.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
12. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. Adjournment only terminates the sitting of the house, where as prorogation not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the house.
2. Adjournment is done by the presiding officer of the house whereas prorogation is done by the President of India.
3. With the Adjournment the bills pending before the house gets lapsed.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All
13. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. For the adoption of Censure motion in the Lok Sabha reason should be provided whereas for the adoption of No-confidence motion in Lok Sabha the provision of reason is not must.
2. No confidence motion can be moved only against the Council of Ministers.
3. Censure motion can also be moved only against the council of ministers.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above
14. The scope of Judicial review in India is:
(a) Narrower than America because American Constitution provides for due process of law.
(b) Broader than America because Indian Constitution provides for due process of law.
(c) Broader than America because American constitution provides for procedure established by law.
(d) Same as that in America.
15. Identify the difference which exist between Indian Supreme Court and American Supreme Court:
1. Indian Supreme Court has Advisory Jurisdiction whereas American Supreme Court lacks advisory jurisdiction.
2. The appellate jurisdiction of Indian Supreme Court is broader than the appellate jurisdiction of American Supreme Court.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
16. The Earth Observation Satellites includes:
1. Resource Sat-2
2. RISAT-2
3. OCEANSAT-2
4. METSAT
Codes:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
17. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. Ordinary bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha whereas Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
2. Rajya Sabha can detain ordinary Bill for a maximum period of 6 months whereas Rajya Sabha can detain Money Bill for a maximum period of only 14 days.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
18. Which of the following is not correctly matched:
Items List
(a) Post Office Savings Union List
Bank
(b) Taxes on Mineral State List
Rights
(c) Drugs and Poisons Concurrent List
(d) Population Control State List
and Family Planning
19. A party is recognized as a national party if:
1. It secures 6% of valid votes in a state in general election of Lok Sabha and also if it wins four seats in Lok Sabha from a single state.
2. It wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election and these candidates are elected from three states.
3. It is recognised as a state party in four states.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
20. Which of the following is/are true for administrative tribunals:
1. They are established under article 323A.
2. An aggrieved Public Servant can directly approach the Supreme Court against an order of Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
3. The CAT was set up in 1985.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
21. Which of the following is/are correct for Lokpal:
1. The Administrate Reforms Commission of India (1966-70) recommended the setting of Lokpal.
2. The ARC kept the Judiciary outside the purview of Lokpal as in Sweeden
3. According to the ARC Lokpal should be appointed by the President after consultation with Chief Justice of India, the speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All
22. The committee which recommends the appointment of Central Information Commission includes:
1. Prime Minister
2. Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha.
3. Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
4. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by PM.
Codes:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All
23. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. Under article 312 Parliament can create new All India Service if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution for it.
2. In 1948, Indian Forest Service was created as the 3rd All India Service.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
24. Fundamental Duties were made a part of the constitution on the recommendation.
(a) Santhanam Committee
(b) Krishnamenon Committee
(c) John Mathai Committee
(d) Sawaran Singh Committee
25. Which of the following is/are correct:
1. Article 31A saves five categories of laws from being challenged on the grounds of the violation of Fundamental Rights.
2. Those laws which cannot be challenged are related to agricultural land reforms, industry and commerce, mining lease.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
26. Which of the following is/are
the features of Parliamentary government in India.
1. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha
2. Membership of the ministers in the legislation.
3. Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the legislature.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All
27. The Chief Commissioner Provinces prior to the Independence of India, were categorised as UT's by which Constitutional Amendment:
(a) 1st Amendment Act 1951.
(b) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(c) 15th Amendment Act 1963
(d) 25th Amendment Act 1971
28. For the removal of a Supreme Court Judge, the correct statement(s) is/are:
1. A removal motion signed by 100 members each from Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha is given to the Speaker/Chairman.
2. Speaker/Chairman constitutes a 3 member committee from Parliament to investigate the charges.
Codes:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
29. Which of the following is/are correct for the bills when Lok Sabha is dissolved:
1. A bill for which President has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha does not lapses.
2. A bill passed by both the Houses but returned by the President for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
30. Which of the following is/are true for Ordinance:
1. The decision of the President to issue an ordinance cannot be questioned in a court.
2. An ordinance cannot abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
31. Arrange the following in the correct order of Precedence:
1. Chief Justice of India
2. Cabinet Secretary
3. Chief Election Commission
Codes:
(a) 1 - 2 - 3
(b) 3 - 1 - 2
(c) 1 - 3 - 2
(d) None of the above
32. Which of the following is/are recognised by the Constitution of India:
1. Religious Minorities
2. Linguistic Minorities
3. Ethnic Minorities
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
33. At present the National Integration Council includes:
1. Prime Minister
2. Chairperson of National Commissions
3. Women and Labour Representatives
Codes:
(a) All
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 only
34. Of the following, the Constitutional Bodies are:
1. National Commission for ST's
2. National Commission for SC's
3. National Human Rights Commission
4. National Commission for Backward Classes
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All
35. In relation to the charged expenditure, the correct statements is/are:
1. Parliament can only discuss it but cannot vote on it.
2. In contains the debt charges for which Government of India is liable only.
3. It contains only pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 only
36. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following:
1. An Official Language Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of B.G. Kher.
2. The Official Language Act (1963) lays down that English should be the medium of communication between the Union and the Non-Hindi States.
Codes:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the
above
37. Of the following committee those associated with Panchayati Raj is/ are:
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.
2. Ashok Mehta Committee
3. GVK Rao Committee
4. Abid Hussain Committee
Codes:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
38. Choose the correct statement:
1. Supreme Court has Original Exclusive Jurisdiction
2. High Court is not Court of record.
3. India adopted a parellel Judicial System.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
39. Match the following:
A. Art. 243-A 1. Finance Commission
B. Art. 243-I 2. Election Commission
C. Art. 243-K 3. Metropolitan Planning Committee
D. Art. 243-ZG 4. Gram Sabha
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
40. What are the sources of Judicial Review in our Constitution:
1. Art. 13
2. Art. 137
3. Written Constitution
4. Division of Power
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
41. Choose the correct statement:
1. Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in any house.
2. Rajya Sabha can reject Money Bill.
3. President can use suspensive veto in case of a Money Bill.
Code:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
42. Municipalities are:
(a) Tier of Local Government
(b) Level of Local Self Government
(c) Types of Local Self government
(d) Organs of Local Self Government
43. The 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 transferred the following subjects to concurrent list from state list.
1. Education
2. Forests
3. Weight and measuring
4. Protection of wild animals
Choose the correct option/options from the list given below: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) All are correct
44. National Emergency under Article 352 include:
1. The Emergency is declared by the President
2. During the emergency the State can suspend the fundamental rights conferred in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
3. Any proclamation by the President is valid only for one months unless it is approved by both houses of the Parliament
4. An emergency provision, unless revoked, ceases to operate on the expiration of a period of six month.
Choose the correct option/options from the list given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) Only 2 is correct
(d) All are correct
45. The most significant aspects of the Supreme Court.
1. Final Interpreter and Guardian of the Constitution
2. Guardian of the Fundamental Rights of the people.
3. Highest and Final Interpreter of the general law of the country.
4. Highest Court of Appeal in both Civil and criminal cases.
Choose the correct option/options from the list given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
46. The Lok Sabha cannot do which of the following:
(a) Dismiss the council of ministers by passing a vote of no-confidence against any individual minister.
(b) Dismiss the council of ministers by passing a vote of No confidence against them.
(c) Dismiss the council of ministers by moving an adjournment motion.
(d) Express its no-confidence in the council of ministers by rejecting the budget as money bill.
47. During the recess of the Parliament, the president can promulgate ordinance:
(a) After consulting with the Chief Justice of India
(b) With the prior approval of Supreme Court of India
(c) With the consent of the council of ministers
(d) On his own
48. The Maximum Duration of the Zero Hour is
(a) One Hour
(b) Two Hour
(c) Till lunch break
(d) Not specified
49. Which of the following statement is true?
1. A resolution passed by Parliament, by special majority that it is in National Interest that it should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State list, remains in force for a period of one year or as may be specified in the resolution.
2. Whether a matter is of National Interest is decided by the President in consultation with Supreme Court of India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. Which of the following statements refers to epistolary jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(a) Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131.
(b) Dealing with PILs through letters addressed to the Court under Art. 32.
(c) Advisory jurisdiction under Article 143.
(d) Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court under Article 142.
1. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha
2. Membership of the ministers in the legislation.
3. Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the legislature.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All
27. The Chief Commissioner Provinces prior to the Independence of India, were categorised as UT's by which Constitutional Amendment:
(a) 1st Amendment Act 1951.
(b) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(c) 15th Amendment Act 1963
(d) 25th Amendment Act 1971
28. For the removal of a Supreme Court Judge, the correct statement(s) is/are:
1. A removal motion signed by 100 members each from Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha is given to the Speaker/Chairman.
2. Speaker/Chairman constitutes a 3 member committee from Parliament to investigate the charges.
Codes:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above
29. Which of the following is/are correct for the bills when Lok Sabha is dissolved:
1. A bill for which President has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha does not lapses.
2. A bill passed by both the Houses but returned by the President for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
30. Which of the following is/are true for Ordinance:
1. The decision of the President to issue an ordinance cannot be questioned in a court.
2. An ordinance cannot abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights.
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
31. Arrange the following in the correct order of Precedence:
1. Chief Justice of India
2. Cabinet Secretary
3. Chief Election Commission
Codes:
(a) 1 - 2 - 3
(b) 3 - 1 - 2
(c) 1 - 3 - 2
(d) None of the above
32. Which of the following is/are recognised by the Constitution of India:
1. Religious Minorities
2. Linguistic Minorities
3. Ethnic Minorities
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
33. At present the National Integration Council includes:
1. Prime Minister
2. Chairperson of National Commissions
3. Women and Labour Representatives
Codes:
(a) All
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 only
34. Of the following, the Constitutional Bodies are:
1. National Commission for ST's
2. National Commission for SC's
3. National Human Rights Commission
4. National Commission for Backward Classes
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All
35. In relation to the charged expenditure, the correct statements is/are:
1. Parliament can only discuss it but cannot vote on it.
2. In contains the debt charges for which Government of India is liable only.
3. It contains only pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 only
36. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following:
1. An Official Language Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of B.G. Kher.
2. The Official Language Act (1963) lays down that English should be the medium of communication between the Union and the Non-Hindi States.
Codes:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the
above
37. Of the following committee those associated with Panchayati Raj is/ are:
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.
2. Ashok Mehta Committee
3. GVK Rao Committee
4. Abid Hussain Committee
Codes:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
38. Choose the correct statement:
1. Supreme Court has Original Exclusive Jurisdiction
2. High Court is not Court of record.
3. India adopted a parellel Judicial System.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
39. Match the following:
A. Art. 243-A 1. Finance Commission
B. Art. 243-I 2. Election Commission
C. Art. 243-K 3. Metropolitan Planning Committee
D. Art. 243-ZG 4. Gram Sabha
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 4
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
40. What are the sources of Judicial Review in our Constitution:
1. Art. 13
2. Art. 137
3. Written Constitution
4. Division of Power
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
41. Choose the correct statement:
1. Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in any house.
2. Rajya Sabha can reject Money Bill.
3. President can use suspensive veto in case of a Money Bill.
Code:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
42. Municipalities are:
(a) Tier of Local Government
(b) Level of Local Self Government
(c) Types of Local Self government
(d) Organs of Local Self Government
43. The 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 transferred the following subjects to concurrent list from state list.
1. Education
2. Forests
3. Weight and measuring
4. Protection of wild animals
Choose the correct option/options from the list given below: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) All are correct
44. National Emergency under Article 352 include:
1. The Emergency is declared by the President
2. During the emergency the State can suspend the fundamental rights conferred in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
3. Any proclamation by the President is valid only for one months unless it is approved by both houses of the Parliament
4. An emergency provision, unless revoked, ceases to operate on the expiration of a period of six month.
Choose the correct option/options from the list given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) Only 2 is correct
(d) All are correct
45. The most significant aspects of the Supreme Court.
1. Final Interpreter and Guardian of the Constitution
2. Guardian of the Fundamental Rights of the people.
3. Highest and Final Interpreter of the general law of the country.
4. Highest Court of Appeal in both Civil and criminal cases.
Choose the correct option/options from the list given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
46. The Lok Sabha cannot do which of the following:
(a) Dismiss the council of ministers by passing a vote of no-confidence against any individual minister.
(b) Dismiss the council of ministers by passing a vote of No confidence against them.
(c) Dismiss the council of ministers by moving an adjournment motion.
(d) Express its no-confidence in the council of ministers by rejecting the budget as money bill.
47. During the recess of the Parliament, the president can promulgate ordinance:
(a) After consulting with the Chief Justice of India
(b) With the prior approval of Supreme Court of India
(c) With the consent of the council of ministers
(d) On his own
48. The Maximum Duration of the Zero Hour is
(a) One Hour
(b) Two Hour
(c) Till lunch break
(d) Not specified
49. Which of the following statement is true?
1. A resolution passed by Parliament, by special majority that it is in National Interest that it should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State list, remains in force for a period of one year or as may be specified in the resolution.
2. Whether a matter is of National Interest is decided by the President in consultation with Supreme Court of India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. Which of the following statements refers to epistolary jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(a) Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131.
(b) Dealing with PILs through letters addressed to the Court under Art. 32.
(c) Advisory jurisdiction under Article 143.
(d) Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court under Article 142.
- Answers
1. (c)
2. (b)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (b)
6. (b)
7. (c)
8. (b)
9. (d)
10. (a)
11. (b)
12. (c)
13. (a)
14. (a)
15. (c)
16. (c)
17. (c)
18. (d)
19. (b)
20. (c)
21. (b)
22. (b)
23. (a)
24. (d)
25. (c)
26. (d)
27. (b)
28. (d)
29. (c)
30. (b)
31. (a)
32. (b)
33. (a)
34. (c)
35. (a)
36. (c)
37. (c)
38. (b)
39. (a)
40. (c)
41. (d)
42. (c)
43. (d)
44. (d)
45. (d)
46. (c)
47. (c)
48. (d)
49. (d)
50. (b)
2. (b)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (b)
6. (b)
7. (c)
8. (b)
9. (d)
10. (a)
11. (b)
12. (c)
13. (a)
14. (a)
15. (c)
16. (c)
17. (c)
18. (d)
19. (b)
20. (c)
21. (b)
22. (b)
23. (a)
24. (d)
25. (c)
26. (d)
27. (b)
28. (d)
29. (c)
30. (b)
31. (a)
32. (b)
33. (a)
34. (c)
35. (a)
36. (c)
37. (c)
38. (b)
39. (a)
40. (c)
41. (d)
42. (c)
43. (d)
44. (d)
45. (d)
46. (c)
47. (c)
48. (d)
49. (d)
50. (b)
Some local government system mcqs are here too.
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