General Studies MCQs -12

76.    Choose the correct statement(s).
    1.    The Agni-IV is a short Range Ballistic Missile with a range of 3,500 km.
    2.    The Agni-IV is capable of carrying five tonne of nuclear warhead.
    3.    Agni-V will be Intercontinental Ballistic Missile.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only        (d)    None

77.    The 2+2 mechanism between the countries involves dialogue between:
    1.    Finance Ministers
    2.    Prime Ministers
    3.    Home Ministers
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3        (d)    None


78.    Euro plus pact is adopted  by the EU to:
    1.    Initiate political reforms with the objective of improving fiscal strength and competitiveness of each country.
    2.    Achieve the goals of sustainable public finance, Financial Stability and creating employment opportunities.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

79.    The Moody's has upgraded India's short terms foreign currency rating from:
    1.    Speculative to Investment grade.
    2.    From NP (Not Prime) to Prime (P-3).
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

80.    The Qualified Foreign Investers are:
    1.    A group or association conforming to the norms of Financial Action Task Force.
    2.    Permitted by the Government of India because they are expected to Widen the Investor base.
    3.    Expected to reduce Market volatility.
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    1 and 3
    (c)    2 and 3        (d)    All

81.    Identify the correct statement(s)
    1.    Gold has been included in the mandatory list for hall marking.
    2.    The Bureau of Indian standards (BIS) under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs is authorised to carry out hall marking.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None
82.    The vaccine which are prescribed in a Anti-Retroviral treatment operates by:
    1.    Blocking the entry of HIV.
    2.    Preventing the reverse transcription of HIV RNA.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None
83.    The stages of India's Nuclear Power Programme differs with respect to:
    1.    Fuel used
    2.    Technology
    3.    Stage of development
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2        (d)    All

84.    From the given identify the conditions imposed by IMF on India at the time of Balance of Payment crisis.
    1.    Devaluation of Rupee.
    2.    Reduction in Import tariff.
    3.    Hike in Excise duties.
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2        (d)    All

85.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    Under suigeneris system intellectual property rights were granted to plant breeders.
    2.    The sui-generis system was cofified as per the provisions of the International Union for the Protection of New Varieties of Plants (UPOV).
    Code:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

86.    The Archaeological Survey of India is under the control of:
    (a)    Department of Culture
    (b)    PMO
    (c)    Ministry of Home Affairs
    (d)    Ministry of Science and Technology

87.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The provisions of clean Development Mechanism under the Kyoto Protocol came into force with effect from 2006.
    2.    The provisions of Joint Implementation under the Kyoto Protocol came into force with effect from 2000.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

88.    The acidity of rain water could be due to:
    1.    CO2        2.    SO2
    3.    NOx
    4.    Chlorofluoro Carbon
    Code:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3
    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 3 and 4
    (d)    All

89.    Of the following individual(s) associated with Swadeshi Movement was/are:
    1.    Syed Haider Raza
    2.    Ajit Singh
    3.    Chidambaram Pillai
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2        (d)    All

90.    The Principle of election was introduced by the:
    (a)    Indian Councils Act - 1909
    (b)    Indian Councils Act - 1919
    (c)    Government of India Act - 1935
    (d)    Indian Councils Act - 1892

91.    Arrange the following in correct chronological order:
    1.    Annexation of Sindh by Britishers
    2.    Prohibition of Sati
    3.    First Anglo Maratha War
    4.    Opening of Suez Canal
    Code:
    (a)    3-2-1-4        (b)    2-3-1-4
    (c)    2-1-3-4        (d)    3-4-1-2

92.    Laspeyres type indexes use weights from:
    (a)    Current period
    (b)    Base period
    (c)    Forecasting
    (d)    Future year

93.    Surplus labour theories assume that:
    (a)    LDC's (Least Develop Country) are overpopulated
    (b)    Labour contributes nothing to output in LDC's
    (c)    The marginal product of labour is close to zero in LDC.
    (d)    None of these

94.    The Lewis model explains how growth get started in a less developed economy:
    (a)    with a downward sloping supply curve labour.
    (b)    with a tradition agricultural sector and an industrial capitalist section.
    (c)    with a marginal productivity of labour
    (d)    None of these

95.    Consider the following statement:
    1.    Specialized farm is the most advanced agricultural phase in a market economy.
    2.    Specialized form usually emphasizes cultivating one crop.
    3.    Such farms are labour intensive.
    True statements is/are:
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    All above

96.    Which of the following colonial policy contribute further to today's agricultural under development in Africa:
    1.    Colonial government's compelled farmers to grow selected crops.
    2.    Colonial failed to train African agriculture scientists and managers.
    3.    Research and development concentrated on food production and small farmers and herders.
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    All above

97.    A Legal entity that is separate and distinct from its owners. It enjoys most of the rights and responsibilities that an individual  posses. It refers to:
    (a)    Enterprises
    (b)    Corporation
    (c)    Partnership
    (d)    None of these

98.    The Financial System provides all of the following financial sevices except:
    (a)    The elemination of Public debt.
    (b)    Reduction of information costs.
    (c)    Provision of Liquidity
    (d)    Risk Sharing

99.    Budget deficit are important for money and banking because:
    (a)    Budget deficits may influence the conduct of monetary policy
    (b)    Without budget deficits bank would not exist.
    (c)    Budget deficits cause banks to fail.
    (d)    All above

100.    The primary liabilities of a saving and loan association are:
    (a)    Mortgages
    (b)    Deposits
    (c)    Bonds
    (d)    Commercial Paper

Answers

76.    (b)
77.    (d)
78.    (c)
79.    (c)
80.    (d)
81.    (c)
82.    (c)
83.    (d)
84.    (d)
85.    (c)
86.    (a)
87.    (c)
88.    (a)
89.    (d)
90.    (a)
91.    (a)
92.    (b)
93.    (c)
94.    (b)
95.    (a)
66.    (c)
97.    (b)
98.    (a)
99.    (a)
100.    (b)

General Studies MCQs - 11

51.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The Narsimhan Committee recommended for the established of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
    2.    RRBs were established with the objective of Bridging the credit gap in rural areas.
    3.    The issued capital of RRBs is subscribed by the Union Government, the State Government and Sponsor banks in the proportion of 50 percent, 15 percent and 35 percent.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2, and 3

52.    Sahyog-Kaijin-XI is a:
    (a)    India-Japan Joint Coast Guard Exercise
    (b)    India-Japan Joint Naval Exercise.
    (c)    India-Srilanka Joint Coast Guard Exercise
    (d)    India-Srilanka Joint Naval Exercise

53.    The Phobos Grunt was:
    1.    Mars probe mission of Russia.
    2.    Carrying Yinghua-1, first Mars probe of China.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

54.    CRIS is a:
    1.    New Rating Index of India developed by Finance Ministry.
    2.    Rating that would consider GDP of 101 nation to provide rating.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

55.    Of the following the Mega Cluster of Handlooms is/are at:
    1.    Varanasi (U.P.)
    2.    Sivasagar (Assam)
    3.    Murshidabad (West Bengal)
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2, and 3

56.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The representation of People's Amendment Act 2010 gives voting rights to overseas Indian Passport holders.
    2.    The Committee for Pravasi Baratiya Samman Award is chaired by the Prime Minister.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only   
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

57.    GLOBAL-INK is:
    1.    An electronic platform developed by Ministry of External Affairs to connect people of Indian Origin from various discipline.
    2.    Operational since 2007 and will continue till 2012.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

58.    Lok Adalats are:
    1.    Given statutory status under the Legal Services Authority Act 1987.
    2.    For the purpose of taking up family disputes, Bank Recovery cases, Labour disputes.
    3.    Having same powers as that of a civil court and the decree of Lok Adalats is final and binding.
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3        (d)    None

59.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) under the Environment protection act has kept Mangrooves in CRZ-1.
    2.    Mangrooves in CRZ-1 are accorded the protection of the highest order.

    Code:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

60.    Identify the correctly matched pair(s):
        Scheme    Ministry
    1.    Annapurana    Rural  Development
    2.    Village grain Bank    Tribal Affairs
    3.    Mid-Day Meal    Human Resource
            Development
    Code:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only    (d)    1, 2 and 3

61.    The National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme Covers:
    1.    Dengue
    2.    Chikungunya
    3.    Japanese Encephalitis
    4.    AIDS
    Code:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3
    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 3 and 4
    (d)    1, 2 and 4

62.    Identify the correct statements with respect to The National AIDS Control Programme (NACP):
    1.    NACP is a 100 Percent Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
    2.    The third phase of NACP is from 2007 to 2012.
    3.    The NACP focuses only on prevention of HIV infections in rural areas.
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 3        (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    2 and 3        (d)    None

63.    Nisarga -Runa technology:
    1.    Is developed by Heavy Water Board.
    2.    Converts biodegradable solid waste into manure and methane.

    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

64.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    In stagflation the rate of inflation is high and rate of unemployment is low.
    2.    The GDP deflator is the ratio of GDP at current price to the GDP at constant price.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

65.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The immediate objective of National Population Policy (NPP) is to bring the Total Fertility Rate to the replacement level of 2.1 by 2010
    2.    The long term objective of NPP is to stabilise population by 2045.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

66.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The Rangarajan Committee has recommended for the abolition of distinction between Plan and Non-Plan expenditures.
    2.    The Usha Thorat Committee has recommended that asset classification norms for Non Banking Finance Companies should be at par with the Commercial banks.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None
67.    The NTPC is setting up its first overseas Power Plant in:
    (a)    Srilanka at Sampur in Trincomalee.
    (b)    Bangladesh at Chittagong
    (c)    Bhutan at Thimpu
    (d)    Afghanistan at Kandahar

68.    The goals of UN Millennium Development Goals is/are:
    1.    By 2015 halve the proportion of people without sustainable access to safe drinking water.
    2.    Eliminate Gender disparities at all levels of education by 2015.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

69.    The Green Box Subsidies under WTO includes:
    1.    Disease Control Expenditure
    2.    Payments made to farmers that do not stimulate production.
    3.    Infrastructure expenditure
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3        (d)    All

70.    Money multiplier is the ratio of:
    1.    M1 to M3
    2.    M1 and Reserve Money
    3.    M3 and Reserve Money
    Code:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only        (d)    2 and 3

71.    The benefits of Capital Account Convertibility is/are:
    1.    Reduction in the cost of Capital
    2.    Indians can acquire and hold International Securities
    3.    Availability of funds to supplement domestic resources.
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2        (d)    All

72.    The conditions put forth by the Taropore Committee before the adoption of Capital Account convertibility is/are:
    1.    Fiscal deficit should be at most 3.5%.
    2.    Mandated Inflation target should be in between 3% and 5%.
    3.    Government should remove all restrictions on the movement of gold.
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3        (d)    All

73.    Under the Liquid Adjustment Facility RBI:
    1.    Stabilize the call rates.
    2.    Controls the volume of money in the market.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

74.    The certificate of Deposits are:
    1.    Issued at par to the face value.
    2.    Freely transferable after 45 days of their issue.
    3.    Having Maturity period between 3 months and 2 years.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only        (d)    None
75.    The Commercial papers (CPs) are the instruments of money market. These are:
    1.    Issued by companies having net worth of Rs. 5 crore.
    2.    Having Maturity between 3 months and 5 years.
    3.    Are issued at discount to the face value.
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    1 and 3
    (c)    2 and 3        (d)    None

Answers

51.    (d)
52.    (a)
53.    (c)
54.    (c)
55.    (d)
56.    (a)
57.    (a)
58.    (a)
59.    (c)
60.    (d)
61.    (a)
62.    (b)
63.    (b)
64.    (b)
65.    (b)
66.    (c)
67.    (a)
68.    (c)
69.    (d)
70.    (d)
71.    (d)
72.    (d)
73.    (c)
74.    (b)
75.    (b)

General Studies MCQs - 10

26.    The Coinage bill passed by Lok Sabha will amalgamate:
    1.    The currency Ordinance, 1940.
    2.    The Indian Coinage Act, 1906.
    3.    The Small Coins (offences) Act, 1971.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 only    (d)    1, 2 and 3

27.    Consider the following statement and choose the correct option:
    1.    The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
    2.    MCA21 e-governance project is implemented by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

28.    The Multinational Poverty Index is:
    1.    A part of National Human Development Report.
    2.    A part of Human Development Report of UNDP.
    3.    Recommended by the Lakdawala Committee Report.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 3        (b)    2 only
    (c)    1 only        (d)    3 only


29.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is compiled on a quarterly basis.
    2.    The new series of IIP with base year 2004-05 was launched in 2011.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

30.    The World Investment Report is published by:
    (a)    World Economic Forum
    (b)    UNCTAD
    (c)    OECD
    (d)    G-8

31.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The Madrid Protocol is associated with the registration of International Trade Marks.
    2.    India has acceded to the Madrid Protocol by notifying the Trade Mark (Amendment) Act 2010.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

32.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    M3 is known as broad measure of money or aggregate monetary resources.
    2.    M1 is having more liquidity than M2.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

33.    The Viability Gap Funding Scheme:
    1.    Provides upto 20 percent of the total project cost.
    2.    Provides grants and loans to infrastructure projects undertaken though PPP.

    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

34.    The India Infrastructure project Development Fund (IIDF) is:
    1.    Set up under the Department of Economic Affairs.
    2.    with an initial budgetary outlay of 200 crore rupees.
    3.    IIDF provides upto 75% of total expenditure in the form of grants.
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3        (d)    None

35.    Of the following identify the Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprises:
    1.    SAIL        2.    BHEL
    3.    NTPC
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 3        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2        (d)    All

36.    The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was:
    1.    Launched to achieve 6% growth rate in agriculture  sector in Xth Five Year Plan.
    2.    Provides Fund in the ratio of 75%  grant and 25% loans to the state governments from the Central Government.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

37.    The Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme (WBCIS) is:
    1.    Available only to small and marginal farmers.
    2.    Available to only those farmers who have taken loans from Scheduled Banks.

    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

38.    The twenty points programme include(s):
    1.    Watershed development
    2.    Family Planning
    3.    National Rural Health Mission.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

39.    The Duty Free Quota Free (DFQF) Scheme:
    1.    Is initiated by India in line with the WTO's Hong Kong Ministerial Mandate.
    2.    Is to provide access to all the least Developed Countries Products in the Indian Market.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None
40.    The country(ies) having participation in the India-EU Bilateral Trade Investment Agreement  is/are:
    1.    Poland        2.    Portugal
    3.    UK        4.    Cyprus
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1, 2, 3 and 4
    (d)    None

41.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    MMTC is India's second largest trading company.
    2.    MMTC has set up the Neelanchal Ispat Nigam Ltd. (NINL).
    Code:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only        (d)    None

42.    The United Nations Frame Work classification for the reserves/resources of Minerals gives information regarding-
    1.    Economics Viability
    2.    Environment Viability
    3.    Social Viability
    4.    Geological Assessment.
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 4
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    2 and 4
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

43.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) is an "Institute of National Importance" under an act of Parliament.
    2.    It operates under the aegis of Prime Ministers Office.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

44.    Identify the correctly matched pair(s):
        Institute    Location
    1.    Central Institute of    Chennai
        Plastics Engineering
        and Technology (CIPET)
    2.    Institute of Pesticide     Gurgaon
        Formulation Technology
    3.    Hindustan Organic     Nagpur
        Chemicals Ltd.
    Code:
    (a)    3 only
    (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    1, 2 and 3
    (d)    None


45.    Of the given the statutory bodies are:
    1.    Central Silk Board
    2.    National Institute of Fashion Technology.
    3.    Khadi and Village Industries Commission
    Code:
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    1, 2 and 3

46.    The National Commission on Population is chaired by:
    (a)    Prime Minister
    (b)    Minister of Health and Family Welfare
    (c)    Minister of Home Affairs
    (d)    Deputy Chairman Planning Commission

47.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The IMF promotes exchange stability among its members whereas the World Bank assists developing countries through long term financing of development projects.
    2.    The IMF allocates Special Drawing Rights to its member countries whereas World Bank provides special financial assistance through the International Development Association.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

48.    Consider the following statements with respect to "One World" and choose the correct option:
    1.    It is a global airline alliance.
    2.    It's members are India's Kingfisher Airlines, Cathay Pacific, British Airway.

    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

49.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The Polio virus multiplies in the intestine.
    2.    In 2011 Polio virus was endemic only in four countries viz. Afghanistan, India, Nigeria, and Pakistan.
    Code:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

50.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The Perform Achieve and Trade (PAT) Scheme is a component of the National Mission on Enhanced Energy Efficiency.
    2.    The PAT scheme is a market based mechanism to make improvements in energy efficiency.
    3.    Under PAT Scheme ESCert. (Energy Saving Certificate) are issued .
    Code:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only    (d)    1, 2 and 3

Answers

26.    (d)
27.    (c)
28.    (b)
29.    (b)
30.    (b)
31.    (c)
32.    (c)
33.    (a)
34.    (d)
35    (a)
36.    (d)
37.    (d)
38.    (d)
39.    (c)
40.    (c)
41.    (c)
42.    (a)
43.    (a)
44.    (b)
45.    (d)
46.    (a)
47.    (c)
48.    (c)
49.    (c)
50.    (d)

General Studies MCQs - 9

TEST -5

1.    The existence of the New Economic Policy has led to creation of many job options for the Indian youth. At the same time, for the urban youth, there is a growth in ___
    (a)    Open Unemployment
    (b)    Structural Unemployment
    (c)    Frictional Unemployment
    (d)    Disguised Unemployment

2.    Preferential Purchase Policy announced in 2011 has given exception to 
    (a)    Defence Procurement
    (b)    Khadi Procurement
    (c)    North East Product Procurement
    (d)    All of the above

3.    India and Japan entered into Currency Swap Agreement in late 2011. Compared to the previous such agreement existing between the two countries it has increased-
    (a)    Two Times    
    (b)    Three Times
    (c)    Four Times
    (d)    Five Times

4.    Russian entry into WTO was for a long time delayed due to various objections of _______
    (a)    USA        (b)    China
    (c)    France         (d)    Georgia


5.    Assertion: Most of the sick industries in India are small scale industries
    Reason: Most of the small scale industries are sick.
    Code:
    (a)    Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (b)    Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c)    (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
    (d)    (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

6.    Teesta water is vital for the economy of West Bengal. The river Teesta meets the Brahamputra at Teestamukh located in
    (a)    Sikkim
    (b)    West Bengal
    (c)    Assam
    (d)    Bangladesh

7.    Currency war has heated up globally. It escalated due to
    (a)    US dollar gradually becoming strong
    (b)    Renminbi becoming strong in November 2011.
    (c)    Yen devaluation in October 2011.
    (d)    All of the above

8.    Which of the following statements is not correct
    (a)    India has been working towards capital deepening
    (b)    SEBI has changed IPP norms in 2012
    (c)    India has vast consumer surplus
    (d)    Parallel export is promoted by WTO

9.    Fiscal drag-
    1.    Leads to increase in direct tax revenue of the government.
    2.    Leads to fall in indirect tax revenue of the government
    3.    Leads to increase in money income of persons
    4.    Leads to fall in real income of persons
    Identify the correct options:
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    2, 3 and 4
    (d)    1, 3 and 4


10.    Relations, between total tax revenue and existing tax rate in illustrated by
    (a)    Gini coefficient
    (b)    Laffer Curve
    (c)    Lorenz Curve
    (d)    All of the above

11.    Excess of consumption expenditure over disposable income is indicative of
    (a)    Excess Saving
    (b)    Dissaving
    (c)    Advance Saving
    (d)    Consumer surplus

12.    When the consumer does not have any special choice and maintains same satisfaction between two products; the curve formed by joining such locus of combination is
    (a)    Satisfaction Curve
    (b)    Choice Curve
    (c)    Bell Curve
    (d)    Indifference Curve

13.    Gender budgeting is in the process of being adopted by many states. It was started in the Union Budget _______ year
    (a)    2002-03     (b)    2005-06
    (c)    2006-07     (d)    2007-08

14.    Which of the following method is used to raise more capital from the existing share holders
    (a)    Private Placement
    (b)    IPO
    (c)    Right Issue
    (d)    FPO


15.    Continuing high rate of fiscal deficit of India is likely to cause which of the following effects.
    1.    Inflation
    2.    Rise in money income of people
    3.    Zero net aid for the country
    4.    Crowding out effect
    Choose the correct option:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    1, 2 and 3
    (c)    1, 3 and 4    (d)    1, 2 and 4
16.    Which of the following in wrongly matched
        Act    year
    (a)    Companies Act     - 1956
    (b)    Securities Contract    - 1956
        (Regulation) Act
    (c)    SEBI Act     - 1992
    (d)    Depositories     - 1994

17.    The Central Statistical Office (CSO) is associated with:
    1.    National Income Accountancy
    2.    Gender Statistics
    3.    Energy
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2         (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3        (d)    All


18.    Identify the correct statement(s):
    1.    The MPLADS is a non-plan Scheme.
    2.    The funds released under MPLADS are non-lapsable.
    3.    The nominated members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha can recommend works only in the state to which they belong.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only    (d)    1, 2 and 3

19.    India has signed Comprehensive Economic Co-operation Agreements (CECA) with:
    1.    Singapore
    2.    South Korea
    3.    Japan
    4.    Malaysia
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 3        (b)    2 and 4
    (c)    3 and 4        (d)    1 and 4

20.    Of the following the instruments issued to  the State Governments only is/are:
    1.    91 day treasury bills
    2.    14 day treasury bills
    3.    364 day treasury bills
    4.    182 day treasury bills
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 and 4        (d)    None

21.    The web based Investor Grievance Redressal System of SEBI is:
    (a)    SOR        (b)    MCA
    (c)    SCORES    (d)    None


22.    The pair of currency(ies) used for trading in the currency futures is/are:
    1.    USD-INR
    2.    EURO-INR
    3.    GBP-INR
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only        (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1, 2 and 3    (d)    None

23.    The External Commercial borrowings are:
    1.    Those instruments having minimum maturity period of 5 years.
    2.    Floating rate notes, Fixed rate bonds.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

24.    The Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) are:
    1.    Expressed in Foreign currency.
    2.    Those whose interest and principal is paid in Indian Currency.
    3.    Convertible into ordinary shares of the issuing company.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3
    (d)    1, 2 and 3
25.    The Financial Action Task Force as members include:
    1.    European Union
    2.    APEC (Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation).
    3.    BRICS
    4.    Gulf Co-operation Council
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    1 and 3
    (c)    3 and 4    (d)    1 and 4

Answers

1.    (c)
2.    (a)
3.    (d)
4.    (d)
5.    (c)
6.    (d)
7.    (c)
8.    (d)
9.    (d)
10.    (b)
11.    (b)
12.    (d)
13.    (b)
14.    (c)
15.    (d)
16.    (d)
17.    (d)
18.    (b)
19.    (d)
20.    (b)
21.    (c)
22.    (c)
23.    (d)
24.    (d)
25.    (d)

General Studies MCQs - 8

76.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    The Ecocity project is implemented by the Ministry of Urban Development.
2.    The Ecocity project is implemented in all the metros and NCR.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2        (d)    None

77.    The Asian Brown Cloud is:
1.    Responsible to increased premature deaths in India.
2.    Responsible for increased solar insolation on the earth's surface.
3.    Responsible for global cooling.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    2 Only
    (c)    3 Only        (d)    None

78.    Of the following identify the fifth Generation Fighter aircrafts:
1.    Rafale        2.    T-50
3.    F-35            4.    J-20
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2        (b)    3 and 4
    (c)    1 and 3        (d)    2 and 4

79.    The Space X Dragon is:
1.    Developed by NASA in 2010.
2.    For the delivery of Cargo to International Space Station.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

80.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    Tianhe is a Chinese Supercomputer.
2.    SAGA 220 is the supercomputer of ISRO.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

81.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    Komado Dragon is a critically endangered species.
2.    Hawaiian crow is an extinct species.
3.    Asian Cheetah is a vulnerable species.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    3 Only    (d)    None

82.    The first Designated Operational Entity to validate and verify Clean Development Projects is:
    (a)    CSIR
    (b)    CPCB
    (c)    Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education.
    (d)    DRDO

83.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    The Xpert NAAT is used for the diagnosis of MDR TB.
2.    AQUAMAT is a vaccine used for curing the Bird Flu.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2        (d)    None

84.    Semtex is:
1.    A plastic explosive
2.    Made from RDX and Penta Erythritol Trinitrate (PETN).
3.    Detected easily.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 3        (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    2 and 3        (d)    All

85.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    IAEA governing body has decided to established a nuclear fuel bank.
2.    India will be able to draw fuel from the nuclear fuel bank.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

86.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    The cases of biopiracy are decided by the National Biodiversity Authority.
2.    The National Biodiversity Authority was set under the Biodiversity Act 2000.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only
    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None


87.    The Genetically modified varieties of crops are created by using.
    (a)    r-DNA technology
    (b)    Cloning
    (c)    Genome Sequencing
    (d)    None

88.    The superconducting cables have been used for the power transmission in-
    1.    Tres amigas project
    2.    Holbrook project
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only
    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

89.    The Global Environment Facility addresses the issues of-
1.    Sound chemical management
2.    Sustainable forest management
3.    Land degradation
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 3        (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    2 and 3        (d)    All
90.    The advantages of fusion power over fission power is/are:
1.    Less production of nuclear waste.
2.    Radioisotopes formed are having shorter life span
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only
    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

91.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    Bird flu is caused by H5N1 virus, this virus is endemic to birds.
2.    Oseltamivir and Zanamivir are used for treating H5N1 infections.
3.    No effective antiviral treatment is available against Chikungunya.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 3
    (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    2 and 3
    (d)    All


92.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    BRIT is associated with the production of radioisotopes.
2.    Aditya is an Indian cyclotron.
3.    India is not a full fledged partner of the ITER.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    2 and 3        (d)    All


93.    Why are some pollutants only acting locally:
1.    They detoxify in short period of time.
2.    They are lacking mechanism for large scale distribution.
3.    They are not polluting when diluted.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    Only 1
    (c)    Only 3    (d)    All
94.    Consider the following statement(s):
    1.    The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is responsible for monitoring the accounts of only Union Government.
    2.    The CAG looks only after the auditing function of the Union Government.
    3.    The function of control and auditing was separated in the year 1976.
    Code:
    (a)    Only 1 is correct
    (b)    Only 2 is correct
    (c)    Only 3 is correct
    (d)    All are correct

95.    Albedo means:
    (a)    Earth Surface reflection.
    (b)    Earth Surface
    (c)    Earth Surface Adsorption
    (d)    None of these

96.    Which particle cannot be accelerated in a magnetic field?
    (a)    Alpha particle
    (b)    Beta particle
    (c)    Neutron
    (d)    Proton


97.    Name the process in which a harmful chemical enters the food chain and get concentrated at each level in the food chain:
    (a)    Concentration
    (b)    Biomagnification
    (c)    Expansion
    (d)    None of these

98.    Which of the following is not one of the major environment problems resulting from human interference.
    (a)    Stratospheric ozone depletion
    (b)    Eutrophication
    (c)    Increased acid rain
    (d)    Nitrous oxide release increases global warming.

99.    Primary reason for targeting bio-diversity hotspots for conservation.
1.    To protect all areas of threatened species would not allow new species to develop.
2.    The number of species threatened far exceeds our capacity to protect them and we can therefore only concentrate on areas of highest species diversity.
3.    They are the only area where species are seriously threatened in the world.
    Codes:
    (a)    Only 2
    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2
    (d)    None of above

100.    Factor Responsible for soil Erosion is/are:
1.    Climatic factors
2.    Soil feature factors
3.    Geological factors
4.    Biological factors
    Codes:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3
    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 3 and 4
    (d)    All of above

Answers

76.    (d)
77.    (a)
78.    (b)
79.    (b)
80.    (c)
81.    (d)
82.    (c)
83.    (a)
84.    (b)
85.    (a)
86.    (c)
87.    (a)
88.    (c)
89.    (d)
90.    (c)
91.    (d)
92.    (a)
93.    (b)
94.    (c)
95.    (a)
66.    (c)
97.    (b)
98.    (d)
99.    (a)
100.    (d)

General Studies MCQs - 7

51.    The 700 Mw PHWR are operating at:
1.    Tarapur
2.    Kakrapara
3.    Rawatbhatta
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 Only    (d)    All

52.    Identify the correctly matched pair(s):
        Player        Sports
1.    Tejaswani Sawant    Athletics
2.    Vikas Gowda    Shooting
3.    Sandhya Rai    Swimming
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    3 Only    (d)    None

53.    The Project-75 programme is:
    (a)    For the construction of submarines
    (b)    For the mapping of coastal area
    (c)    For the construction of unmanned Aerial Vehicle
    (d)    None

54.    The T-50 Stealth Fighter will replace:
1.    SU-27
2.    MiG-29
3.    MiG-31
4.    SU-29
Code:
    (a)    2 and 3    (b)    1 and 4
    (c)    1 and 2    (d)    3 and 4

55.    Identify the correct statements:
1.    The Delhi International Airport Limited has become the first airport operator to receive ISO 50001:2011 certification.
2.    The ISO 50001:2001 is awarded for Energy Management System.
Code:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

56.    The tropical storm which struck New  York was:
    (a)    Serene    (b)    Irene
    (c)    Shene    (d)    Zen

57.    The particle which is under investigation under the OPERA project is:
    (a)    Anti-Proton    (b)    Higgs Boson
    (c)    Neutron    (d)    Quarks

58.    Of the following the payloads of Chandrayan-1 is/are:
1.    M3
2.    SARA
3.    Lunar Rover
4.    Moon Impact Probe
    Code:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3    (b)    1, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 2 and 4    (d)    All

59.    Of the following the LASERS could be produced by:
1.    CO2            2.    GaAS
3.    Liquid Dyes
Code:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All    (d)    None

60.    Identify the correct statements:
1.    The theme of the 17th SAARC Summit was "Building Bridges".
2.    The comptroller and Auditor General of India has been appointed as the external auditor of IAEA and WIPO.
    Code:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

61.    The National Black Carbon Research initiative is:
1.    Launched under National carbonaceous Aerosol Programme.
2.    To study the role of Black carbon particles in the melting of the  Himalayan glaciers.
3.    Headed by Prof. J. Srinivasan of IISC.
    (a)    1 and 3    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    All    (d)    None

62.    The agency which has granted full membership to Palestine is:
    (a)    UNEP    (b)    UNESCO
    (c)    WIPO    (d)    UNICEF

63.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    Carbon particles posses the same capacity of causing the global warming as by the methane.
2.    Chlorofluorocarbon is responsible for approximately 10% of the global warming.
    (a)    1 Only
    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

64.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    The Persistant Organic Pollutants (POP) are industrial chemicals and their by products
2.    The Endosulfan is used as a pesticides in the plantation crops.
    (a)    1 Only
    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None
65.    The Chemical which has resulted in the thinning of the egg shell of birds is:
    (a)    DDT
    (b)    Diclofenac
    (c)    Oxytocin
    (d)    All of the above

66.    The pollutant(s) monitored under the norms of emission standard is/are:
1.    CO2    2.    CO
3.    Particulate matter    4.    NOx
    (a)    1, 2 and 3
    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 3 and 4
    (d)    1, 2 and 4

67.    The areas included in the Ecocity Project are:
1.    Urban Design
2.    Transportation
3.    Socio-Economic aspects
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3    (d)    All

68.    The Bharat Stage IV emission norms are being implemented in:
1.    Ahmedabad
2.    Pune
3.    Kanpur
4.    Chandigarh
    Codes:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3
    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 3 and 4
    (d)    1, 2 and 4

69.    Consider the following statement(s) and choose the correct option.
1.    The "Biomass to Liquid" process is used for the production of second generation bio fuels.
2.    The third generation biofuels are based on genetically modified trees.
Codes:
    (a)    1 Only
    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

70.    The objectives of REDD+ mechanism is/are:
1.    Managing the destruction of forests through fires.
2.    Forest Management
3.    Reduction of Green House Gas Emission.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    3 Only    (d)    None

71.    Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
1.    The UV-B radiation causes cataract and skin cancer.
2.    The UV-C radiation is more energetic than UV-B radiation, but UV-C is completely absorbed by the ozone layer.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only
    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None
72.    Arrange the following gases in the decreasing order in terms of their contribution to global warming.
1.    Carbon-di-oxide
2.    Methane
3.    Water Vapour
4.    Ozone
    Codes:
    (a)    4-1-2-3    (b)    2-1-3-4
    (c)    4-3-1-2    (d)    3-1-2-4

73.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    India is a member of UNFCCC and Kyoto protocol.
2.    India is having active participation in the Clean Development Mechanism.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only
    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    None

74.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    The Montreux record is associated with wetlands.
2.    Bhitarkanika is a larger wetland site than the Chilka lake.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only        (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2        (d)    None

75.    Identify the correctly matched pair(s):
        Wetland    State
1.    Kanjli    Punjab
2.    Harike    Punjab
3.    Pong dam    Punjab
4.    Vembanad    Tamil Nadu
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    3 and 4
    (c)    1 and 3    (d)    2 and 4

Answers

51.    (a)
52.    (d)
53.    (a)
54.    (c)
55.    (c)
56.    (b)
57.    (c)
58.    (c)
59.    (c)
60.    (c)
61.    (c)
62.    (b)
63.    (d)
64.    (b)
65.    (a)
66.    (b)
67.    (d)
68.    (a)
69.    (c)
70.    (c)
71.    (c)
72.    (d)
73.    (c)
74.    (a)
75.    (a)

General Studies MCQs 6

26.    The country which has decided to implement the carbon tax from 1 July, 2012 is:
    (a)    Denmark    (b)    Australia
    (c)    New Zealand    (d)    Norway

27.    The depletion of the ozone layer is:
1.    due to "catalytic cycle" and in this cycle free radicals are formed.
2.    Free radicals can remain active upto 50 years and destroy thousands of O3 molecules.
3.    More over the polar region and almost negligible over the tropical region.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 3    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 2    (d)    All

28.    The alternates of Ozone depleting substance:
    (a)    Does not destroy ozone at all
    (b)    Posses less capacity to destroy the ozone.
    (c)    Have longer life span
    (d)    Have shorter life span

29.    One of the best solutions to get rid of non-biodegradable wastes is:
    (a)    Burning    (b)    Dumping
    (c)    Recycling    (d)    None

30.    The Ultra Mega Power Plant(s), which has/have earned the carbon credits are:
1.    Sasan
2.    Krishnapattnam
3.    Tilaiya
    Codes:
    (a)    1  and 2    (b)    3 only
    (c)    2 only    (d)    1 and 3
31.    Of the following the Green House Gas(es) are:
1.    Methane
2.    Carbon-di-oxide
3.    Water Vapour
4.    Chlorofluro carbon
    Codes:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3
    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 3 and 4
    (d)    1, 2, 3 and 4

32.    The storage of carbon-di-oxide under carbon sequestration will be done:
1.    Below the Earth Crust
2.    Below the Ocean bottom.
3.    In the ammonia columns.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    1 and 2
    (c)    3 only    (d)    None

33.    The "Sulfate Reducers" are:
1.    Bacteria used in the bioremediation of industrial pollutants.
2.    Bacteria genetically engineered to treat the nuclear waste.
3.    Bacteria for the removal of oceanic oil spills.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only    (d)    None

34.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    Plants are a better bioremediating agents than the bacteria.
2.    GM Arabidopsis thaliana and Alfa-Alfa are used in the phytoremediation.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

35.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    The biosphere reserves in India at present represents all the biogeographic region.
2.    The Nilgiri biosphere reserves is the second largest.
3.    In the biosphere no human activity is allowed.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    3 only    (d)    None

36.    The correct statement(s) with respect to ozone is/are:
1.    It absorbs UV radiation in the stratosphere region of the atmosphere.
2.    It is at lower height in the equatorial region than the polar region.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

37.    The biosphere reserves recognised on world network Biosphere Reserve by UNESCO is/are:
1.    Gulf of Mannar
2.    Sundarban
3.    Gulf of Kutchchh
4.    Kanchanjanga
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 and 4
    (c)    2 and 3    (d)    1 and 4

38.    Identify the activities which require prior approval under Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) is/are:
1.    River Valley Projects
2.    Mining
3.    Thermal Power Plants
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3    (d)    1, 2 and 3

39.    The volcanic eruption causes environment impact in the form of:
1.    Reduction in the amount of solar radiation reaching the earth surface.
2.    Formation of Jokullahlaups
    Codes:
    (a)    1 only    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

40.    Those species which are formed due to the presence of geographical barriers are:
    (a)    Allopatric    (b)    Sympatric
    (c)    Parapatric    (d)    Keystore

41.    The species which is likely to become endangered in the near future is know as:
    (a)    Threatened
    (b)    Rare
    (c)    Vulnerable
    (d)    Extinct in the wilds

42.    Arrange the following countries in decreasing order in terms of percentage of surface area declared as protected area:
1.    Saudia-Arabia
2.    Venezuela
3.    China
4.    Colombia
    Codes:
    (a)    4-1-2-3    (b)    3-2-1-4
    (c)    2-3-1-4    (d)    1-2-3-4

43.    The black carbon particles are:
1.    Formed due to incomplete combustion of the fuel.
2.    Known as short lived climate forcers.
3.    Having smaller life than Green-House gases but capacity to cause climate change is more.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1, 2 and 3    (d)    None

44.    Of the following identify the companies included in the Fortune 500  global list:
1.    State Bank of India.
2.    Bharti Airtel
3.    Tata Steel
    Codes:
    (a)    1 and 2    (b)    2 and 3
    (c)    1 and 3    (d)    1, 2 and 3


45.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    The SIT on Black Money is under the chairmanship of Supreme Court Judge B.P. Jeevan Reddy
2.    The Supreme Court of India has declared the Salwa Judum as unconstitutional.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

46.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    The Stereo Digital Aerial Photography (SDAP) has been adopted for the purpose of Coastal Hazard line mapping.
2.    For the SDAP, the mainland coastline has been divided into twelve blocks.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

47.    Identify the correct statement(s):
1.    The Department of Land Sources is under the Ministry of Agriculture.
2.    The Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS) is largest power producing nuclear site.
    Codes:
    (a)    1 Only    (b)    2 Only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2    (d)    None

48.    The gases identified as Green House Gases under Kyoto Protocol are:
1.    Nitrous Oxide
2.    Chlorofluorocarbons
3.    Ozone
4.    Sulfur Hexa Fluoride
    Codes:
    (a)    1, 2 and 3    (b)    2, 3 and 4
    (c)    1, 3 and 4    (d)    1, 2 and 4

49.    The radiation used in CT Scan is:
    (a)    Sound Waves
    (b)    X-ray
    (c)    Radiowaves
    (d)    Microwaves
50.    The adding of gypsum to the cement:
    (a)    Increases the rate of cement setting
    (b)    Decreases the rate of cement setting
    (c)    Make cement more strong
    (d)    None

Answers

26.    (b)
27.    (a)
28.    (b)
29.    (c)
30.    (a)
31.    (d)
32.    (a)
33.    (c)
34.    (b)
35    (d)
36.    (a)
37.    (a)
38.    (d)
39.    (c)
40.    (a)
41.    (c)
42.    (c)
43.    (a)
44.    (c)
45.    (c)
46.    (a)
47.    (b)
48.    (d)
49.    (b)
50.    (b)